1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Mrrafil [7]
3 years ago
6

Which phrase is the best definition of matter

Physics
1 answer:
ladessa [460]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Matter

Explanation:

Any type of material is a matter. It can be anything that occupies space and have mass. It is a composition of atoms which in term is made up of electrons, protons and neutrons. All particles in our universe is matter because everything has some mass and it occupies space.

You might be interested in
Why were epicycles necessary in ptolemy’s model of the universe?
Liono4ka [1.6K]

epicycles were orbits within orbits used to explain discrepancies between expected and observed planetary movement, including the appearance of planets slowing down, speeding up, and moving backward.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why do hot stars look bluer than cool stars?
brilliants [131]

Answer:

(B) The wavelength that a star radiates the most energy is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Explanation:

As we know that

According to Wien's law wavelength is inverse proportional to the temperature .

  λ.T = Constant.

λ.∝ 1 /T

As we know that star radiates wavelength and this wavelength is inverse proportional to the temperature of the star.

The temperature of cool star is cooler than the temperature of hot star that is cool star looks red and hot star looks blue.Cool star have low energy and hot star have high energy.

So option B is correct.

(B) The wavelength that a star radiates the most energy is inversely proportional to the temperature.

5 0
3 years ago
Is (2, 2) a solution of y &lt; 4x-6<br> Help
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

B) No.

Explanation:

Okay,so,

this is equation is y=mx +b

mx represents the slope

and b represents the y-intercept

in order to figure this out you need to plot the y-intercept first

that makes its (0,-6) because the 6 is negative in the equation

4x is also equal to 4/1 since we dont know what x is

we have to do rise over run for this

you go up 4 spots on the y intercept from -6 because 4 is positive

then you go to the right 1 time because 1 is positive.

this leaves you at (1,-2)

so, (2,2) is NOT a solution

7 0
3 years ago
A current of 5 A is flowing in a 20 mH inductor. The energy stored in the magnetic field of this inductor is:_______
Kipish [7]

Answer:

C. 0.25J

Explanation:

Energy stored in the magnetic field of the inductor is expressed as E = 1/2LI² where;

L is the inductance

I is the current flowing in the inductor

Given parameters

L = 20mH = 20×10^-3H

I = 5A

Required

Energy stored in the magnetic field.

E = 1/2 × 20×10^-3 × 5²

E = 1/2 × 20×10^-3 × 25

E = 10×10^-3 × 25

E = 0.01 × 25

E = 0.25Joules.

Hence the energy stored in the magnetic field of this inductor is 0.25Joules

7 0
3 years ago
Example 3 :
kherson [118]

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d =  diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V =  velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 108}

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor = 0. 289

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 324}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

Friction factor = 0.096

Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

Head loss = 0. 289 × \frac{1}{2*6. 6743 * 10^-11} × \frac{1^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss =  1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = 0. 096 × \frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10} × \frac{3^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss  when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
Other questions:
  • Which statement best compares momentum and kinetic energy? If you double the velocity of an object, its kinetic energy doubles.
    9·2 answers
  • A car moves at a speed of 40 miles per hour for half an hour and then at 60 miles per hour for two hours. What is the average sp
    5·1 answer
  • If a current flowing through a lightbulb is 0.75 ampere and the voltage difference across the lightbulb is 120 volts, how much r
    8·1 answer
  • A boy on a skateboard is pushed down the sidewalk by a friend. The skateboard rolls for a while but eventually comes to a stop.
    7·2 answers
  • A bottle lying on the windowsill falls off and takes 4.95 seconds to reach the ground. The distance from the windowsill to the g
    14·2 answers
  • PLEASE help me with this science question.
    10·2 answers
  • What are the three types of muscle fibers?
    7·2 answers
  • How does technology make sustainability more difficult?
    7·2 answers
  • The acceleration of gravity on the
    9·1 answer
  • Why a bulb contains coiled wire?<br>​
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!