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3 years ago

What caused the formation of the East African Rift Zone?

Physics

2 answers:

Elena-2011 [213]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: divergent plate

Explanation: the East African Rift Valley (EAR) is a developing divergent plate boundary in East Africa. Here the eastern portion of Africa, the Somalian plate, is pulling away from the rest of the continent, which comprises the Nubian plate.

koban [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Lake Victoria sits between these two branches. It is thought that these rifts are generally following old sutures between ancient continental masses that collided billions of years ago to form the African craton and that the split around the Lake Victoria region occurred due to the presence of a small core of ancient metamorphic rock, the Tanzania craton, that was too hard for the rift to tear through. Because the rift could not go straight through this area, it instead diverged around it leading to the two branches that can be seen today.

Explanation:

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12.51 A parallel RLC circuit, which is driven by a variable frequency 2-A current source, has the following values: R = 1 kΩ, L

Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

BW = 100 rad/s

wlow = 452.49 rad/s

whigh = 552.49 rad/s

V(jwlow) =1414.21 < 45°V

V(jwhigh) =1414.21 <-45°V

Explanation:

To calculate bandwidth we have formula

BW = 1/RC

BW = 1/ 1000x10x10^¯6

BW = 100 rad/s

We will first calculate resonant frequency and quality factor for half power frequencies.

For resonant frequency

wo = 1/(SQRT LC)

wo = 1/SQRT 400×10¯³ × 10×10^¯6

wo = 500 rad/s

For Quality

Q = wo / BW

Q = 500/100

Q = 5

wlow = wo [-1/2Q+ SQRT (1/2Q)² + 1]

wlow = 500 [-1/2×5 + SQRT (1/2×5)² + 1]

wlow = 452.49 rad/s

whigh = wo [1/2Q+ SQRT (1/2Q)² + 1]

whigh = 500 [1/2×5 + SQRT (1/2×5)² + 1]

whigh = 552.49 rad/s

We will start with admittance at lower half power frequency

Y(jwlow) = (1/R) + (1/jwlow L) + (jwlow C)

Y(jwlow) = (1/1000) + (1/j×452.49×400×10¯³) + (j×452.49×10×10^¯6)

Y(jwlow) = 0.001 - j5.525×10¯³ + j4.525×10¯³

Y(jwlow) = (1-j).10¯³ S

Voltage across the network is calculated by ohm's law

V(jwlow) = I/Y(jwlow)

V(jwlow) = 2/(1-j).10¯³

V(jwlow) = 1414.2 < 45°V

Now we will calculate the admittance at higher half power frequency

Y(jwhigh) = (1/R) + (1/jwhigh L) + (jwhigh C)

Y(jwhigh) = (1/1000) + (1/j×552.49×400×10¯³) + (j×552.49×10×10^¯6)

Y(jwhigh) = 0.001 - j4.525×10¯³ + j5.525×10¯³

Y(jwhigh) = (1+j).10¯³ S

Voltage across network will be calculated by ohm's law

V(jwhigh) = I/Y(jwhigh)

V(jwhigh) = 2/(1+j).10¯³

V(jwhigh) = 1414.2 < - 45°V

6 0

4 years ago

A 23 g bullet traveling at 230 m/s penetrates a 2.0 kg block of wood and emerges cleanly at 170 m/s. If the block is stationary

Ann [662]

The distance traveled by the wood after the bullet emerges is 0.16 m.

The given parameters;

mass of the bullet, m = 23 g = 0.023 g
speed of the bullet, u = 230 m/s
mass of the wood, m = 2 kg
final speed of the bullet, v = 170 m/s
coefficient of friction, μ = 0.15

The final velocity of the wood after the bullet hits is calculated as follows;

$m_1u_1 + m_2 u_2 = m_1v_1 + m_2v_2\\\\0.023(230) + 2(0) = 0.023(170) + 2v_2\\\\5.29 = 3.91 + 2v_2\\\\2v_2 = 1.38\\\\v_2 = \frac{1.38}{2} = 0.69 \ m/s$

The acceleration of the wood is calculated as follows;

$\mu = \frac{a}{g} \\\\a = \mu g\\\\a = 0.15 \times 9.8\\\\a = 1.47 \ m/s^2$

The distance traveled by the wood after the bullet emerges is calculated as follows;

$v^2 = v_0^2 + 2as\\\\v^2 = 0 + 2as\\\\v^2 = 2as\\\\s = \frac{v^2}{2a} \\\\s = \frac{(0.69)^2}{2(1.47)} \\\\s = 0.16 \ m$

Thus, the distance traveled by the wood after the bullet emerges is 0.16 m.

Learn more here:brainly.com/question/15244782

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is not a part of dalton s atomic theory?

Alex777 [14]

c. atoms are always in motion..............

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE) = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = $\sqrt{6gL}$

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0

3 years ago

Two glasses of water have the same thermal energy. must they have the same temperature? explain.

taurus [48]

No,because they may have more particles

3 0

3 years ago