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2 years ago

How is sound detected by the brain

2 answers:

ivann1987 [24]2 years ago

3 0

begin with vibrations of the eardrum. Sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate. Cells in the cochlea detect the vibrations and send a message to the brain.

siniylev [52]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Sound must have a means by which it can be transported, for example air. That is why there is no sound in space.

The way our brain perceives sound is through the ears. The tympanum that the human being has is connected to three bones and when the air vibrates, the tympanum also vibrates, causing these vibrations to pass through those bones towards the inner part of the ears and from there to our brain.

That is the way the brain perceives sound.

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Please help me someone !

san4es73 [151]

Answer:

The object is moving at constant speed.

Explanation:

The spaces between the dots are equal.

7 0

2 years ago

We know the frequency range of certain sounds are: 400-560 Hz, what are the ranges of wavelength in meters when the signal trans

Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

Range of wavelength will be $5.35\times 10^5m$ to $7.5\times 10^5m$

Explanation:

We have given range of frequency is 400-560 Hz

Speed of the light $c=3\times 10^8m/sec$

We have to find the range of the wavelength of signal transmitted

Ween know that velocity is given by $v=\lambda f$ , here $\lambda$ is wavelength and f is frequency

So for 400 Hz frequency wavelength will be $\lambda =\frac{c}{f}=\frac{3\times 10^8}{400}=7.5\times 10^5m$

And wavelength for frequency 560 Hz $\lambda =\frac{c}{f}=\frac{3\times 10^8}{560}=5.35\times 10^5m$

So range of wavelength will be $5.35\times 10^5m$ to $7.5\times 10^5m$

8 0

2 years ago

A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field B with a velocity v at right angles to the field. It moves in a circle with p

alukav5142 [94]

A) d. 10T

When a charged particle moves at right angle to a uniform magnetic field, it experiences a force whose magnitude os given by

$F=qvB$

where q is the charge of the particle, v is the velocity, B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as a centripetal force, keeping the particle in a circular motion - so we can write

$qvB = \frac{mv^2}{r}$

which can be rewritten as

$v=\frac{qB}{mr}$

The velocity can be rewritten as the ratio between the lenght of the circumference and the period of revolution (T):

$\frac{2\pi r}{T}=\frac{qB}{mr}$

So, we get:

$T=\frac{2\pi m r^2}{qB}$

We see that this the period of revolution is directly proportional to the mass of the particle: therefore, if the second particle is 10 times as massive, then its period will be 10 times longer.

B) $a. f/10$

The frequency of revolution of a particle in uniform circular motion is

$f=\frac{1}{T}$

where

f is the frequency

T is the period

We see that the frequency is inversely proportional to the period. Therefore, if the period of the more massive particle is 10 times that of the smaller particle:

T' = 10 T

Then its frequency of revolution will be:

$f'=\frac{1}{T'}=\frac{1}{(10T)}=\frac{f}{10}$

6 0

2 years ago

Which scenario will drain the battery in the circuit diagram fastest: three 20 W bulbs in positions one, two, and three or 80 W

kakasveta [241]

Answer:

See the explanation below.

Explanation:

If you connect the three bulbs 20 W each will have a total power of 60W.

Now we need to understand to assign the meaning of the word gap, that is, if the circuit is open at that point or if there is no bulb connected at that point.

If the circuit is open at Point 2, there will be no current in the circuit, so the battery will drain faster with the three bulbs 20W.

In the second event, where gap means that there are no bulbs connected at that point, it means that you have two bulbs connected in series of 80W each.

In this case the bulbs will consume 160W thus drain the battery faster than the three 20W bulbs connected in series.

3 0

2 years ago

A swift blow with the hand can break a pine board. As the hand hits the board, the kinetic energy of the hand is trans- formed i

ra1l [238]

Answer:

a) v = 4.4 m/s

b) F = 400 N

Explanation:

a) ½kx² = ½mv²

v = √(kx²/m)

F = kx

v = √(Fx/m)

v = √(800(0.012) / 0.5) = √19.2 = 4.3817...

b) Fd = ½mv²

F = mv²/2d

F = 0.5(19.2) / (2(0.012) = 400 N

3 0

2 years ago