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AnnZ [28]
3 years ago
8

A single loop of wire with area A carrying a current I has a magnetic moment µ = IA. If you wanted a single loop of wire with an

area equal to the cross-sectional area of the magnet used here to have the same magnetic moment as your permanent magnet, how large a current would you need flowing through the loop?
Physics
1 answer:
viktelen [127]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The current would you need flowing through the loop is

I'=\frac{\mu 'I}{\mu }

Explanation:

The magnetic moment is permanent, the area is equal to:

A=\frac{\mu }{I}

The current is:

I'=\frac{\mu '}{A}

Replacing the area value, the current is:

I'=\frac{\mu 'I}{\mu }

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A 30 kg dog runs at a speed of 15<br> What is the dog's kinetic energy?
sattari [20]
Ke= 1/2 mv ^ 2
15x 15 = 225
225 x 30 = 6750
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3 years ago
A spacecraft travels at 1.5 X 108 m/s relative to Earth. A process onboard the
kvasek [131]

Answer:

73.6 minutes

Explanation:

relative time = time interval / √(1 - observer velocity² / speed of light²)

we have relative time. we want time interval.

rearrange

time interval = relative time x √(1 - observer velocity² / speed of light²)

convert 85 mins into seconds

85 x 60 = 5100

1.5 x 10⁸ as a number is 150000000

for c = 299 792 458

time interval = 5100 x √(1 - 150 000 000² / 299 792 458²)

for c = 3 x 10⁸

time interval = 5100 x √(1 - 150 000 000² / 300 000 000²)

time interval = 5100 x 0.866

time interval = 4415.71

divide by 60 for back into minutes

time = 73.6 minutes

4 0
2 years ago
Three forces act on a moving object. One force has a magnitude of 83.7 N and is directed due north. Another has a magnitude of 5
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

  • |\vec{F}_3| = 102.92 \ N
  • \theta = 57 \° 24 ' 48''

Explanation:

For an object to move with constant velocity, the acceleration of the object must be zero:

\vec{a} = \vec{0}.

As the net force equals acceleration multiplied by mass , this must mean:

\vec{F}_{net} = m \vec{a} = m * \vec{0} = \vec{0}.

So, the sum of the three forces must be zero:

\vec{F}_1 + \vec{F}_2 + \vec{F}_3 = \vec{0},

this implies:

\vec{F}_3  = - \vec{F}_1 - \vec{F}_2.

To obtain this sum, its easier to work in Cartesian representation.

First we need to define an Frame of reference. Lets put the x axis unit vector \hat{i} pointing east,  with the y axis unit vector \hat{j} pointing south, so the positive angle is south of east. For this, we got for the first force:

\vec{F}_1 = 83.7 \ N \ (-\hat{j}),

as is pointing north, and for the second force:

\vec{F}_2 = 59.9 \ N \ (-\hat{i}),

as is pointing west.

Now, our third force will be:

\vec{F}_3  = - 83.7 \ N \ (-\hat{j}) - 59.9 \ N \ (-\hat{i})

\vec{F}_3  =  83.7 \ N \ \hat{j}  + 59.9 \ N \ \hat{i}

\vec{F}_3  =  (59.9 \ N , 83.7 \ N )

But, we need the magnitude and the direction.

To find the magnitude, we can use the Pythagorean theorem.

|\vec{R}| = \sqrt{R_x^2 + R_y^2}

|\vec{F}_3| = \sqrt{(59.9 \ N)^2 + (83.7 \ N)^2}

|\vec{F}_3| = 102.92 \ N

this is the magnitude.

To find the direction, we can use:

\theta = arctan(\frac{F_{3_y}}{F_{3_x}})

\theta = arctan(\frac{83.7 \ N }{ 59.9 \ N })

\theta = 57 \° 24 ' 48''

and this is the angle south of east.

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