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frez [133]
3 years ago
12

X - y = 0A, B, C, or D​

Mathematics
1 answer:
skad [1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the equation y = mx + b.

m represents the slope

b represents where the line crosses the y axis.

We can attempt to set up the equation given in the same way.

x - y = 0

Add y to both sides and the 0 can drop out.

x = y

This is also equal to:

y = x

In this equation the m is equal to 1 and the b is equal to 0.

Taking this into account the answer is D.

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WORTH 50 POINTS!!
cluponka [151]

Answers:  Choice A and Choice E

0.82B  and  B-0.18B

========================================================

Explanation:

B is the cost of the game (some unknown amount). Subtract off 0.18B to indicate a 18% reduction in the price. That's how we get choice E.

Simplifying choice E leads us to choice A. Notice that 1 - 0.18 = 0.82; which represents 100% - 18% = 82%. After the discount, Bo is paying 82% of the original price.

Side note: Choice B indicates an 18% increase. Choices C and D don't represent percentage decreases (rather they're decreasing by a fixed amount regardless of what B is).

4 0
2 years ago
When I was 6 my sister was 3. If im 70 now, how old is she. Trying to give away points.
Ad libitum [116K]
She would be 67 years old
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Anyone help please? Thanks!
frutty [35]
which angle are you trying to find?
7 0
3 years ago
Help with q25 please. Thanks.​
Westkost [7]

First, I'll make f(x) = sin(px) + cos(px) because this expression shows up quite a lot, and such a substitution makes life a bit easier for us.

Let's apply the first derivative of this f(x) function.

f(x) = \sin(px)+\cos(px)\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f(x)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)+\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]+\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]\\\\f'(x) = p\cos(px)-p\sin(px)\\\\ f'(x) = p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))\\\\

Now apply the derivative to that to get the second derivative

f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f'(x)]\\\\f''(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[p(\cos(px)-\sin(px))]\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(\frac{d}{dx}[\cos(px)]-\frac{d}{dx}[\sin(px)]\right)\\\\ f''(x) = p*\left(-p\sin(px)-p\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\ f''(x) = -p^2*f(x)\\\\

We can see that f '' (x) is just a scalar multiple of f(x). That multiple of course being -p^2.

Keep in mind that we haven't actually found dy/dx yet, or its second derivative counterpart either.

-----------------------------------

Let's compute dy/dx. We'll use f(x) as defined earlier.

y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\y = \ln\left(f(x)\right)\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[y\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\ln\left(f(x)\right)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{f(x)}*\frac{d}{dx}\left[f(x)\right]\\\\\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\\\\

Use the chain rule here.

There's no need to plug in the expressions f(x) or f ' (x) as you'll see in the last section below.

Now use the quotient rule to find the second derivative of y

\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{dy}{dx}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right]\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-f'(x)*f'(x)}{(f(x))^2}\\\\\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2}\\\\

If you need a refresher on the quotient rule, then

\frac{d}{dx}\left[\frac{P}{Q}\right] = \frac{P'*Q - P*Q'}{Q^2}\\\\

where P and Q are functions of x.

-----------------------------------

This then means

\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + \left(\frac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\right)^2 + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} +\frac{(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)-(f'(x))^2+(f'(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\

Note the cancellation of -(f ' (x))^2 with (f ' (x))^2

------------------------------------

Let's then replace f '' (x) with -p^2*f(x)

This allows us to form  ( f(x) )^2 in the numerator to cancel out with the denominator.

\frac{f''(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*f(x)*f(x)}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\\frac{-p^2*(f(x))^2}{(f(x))^2} + p^2\\\\-p^2 + p^2\\\\0\\\\

So this concludes the proof that \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 + p^2 = 0\\\\ when y = \ln\left(\sin(px)+\cos(px)\right)\\\\

Side note: This is an example of showing that the given y function is a solution to the given second order linear differential equation.

7 0
3 years ago
Identify the coefficient in each term
Archy [21]

Answer:

5. 4

6. 1

7. 2

8. -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Coefficient is usually the whole number in the beginning. I believe 5-7 are correct. I'm a little iffy about 8. Good luck!

8 0
3 years ago
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