A dipstick is (a direct,an indirect) measurement device

Water flows through a pipe of 100 mm at the rate of 0.9 m3 per minute at section A. It tapers to 50mm diameter at B, A being 1.5

pochemuha

Answer:

The velocities in points A and B are 1.9 and 7.63 m/s respectively. The Pressure at point B is 28 Kpa.

Explanation:

Assuming the fluid to be incompressible we can apply for the continuity equation for fluids:

$Aa.Va=Ab.Vb=Q$

Where A, V and Q are the areas, velocities and volume rate respectively. For section A and B the areas are:

$Aa=\frac{pi.Da^2}{4}= \frac{\pi.(0.1m)^2}{4}=7.85*10^{-3}\ m^3$

$Ab=\frac{pi.Db^2}{4}= \frac{\pi.(0.05m)^2}{4}=1.95*10^{-3}\ m^3$

Using the volume rate:

$Va=\frac{Q}{Aa}=\frac{0.9m^3}{7.85*10^{-3}\ m^3} = 1.9\ m/s$

$Vb = \frac{Q}{Ab}= \frac{0.9m^3}{1.96*10^{-3}\ m^3} = 7.63\ m/s$

Assuming no losses, the energy equation for fluids can be written as:

$Pa+\frac{1}{2}pa.Va^2+pa.g.za=Pb+\frac{1}{2}pb.Vb^2+pb.g.zb$

Here P, V, p, z and g represent the pressure, velocities, height and gravity acceleration. Considering the zero height level at point A and solving for Pb:

$Pb=Pa+\frac{1}{2}pa(Va^2-Vb^2)-pa.g.za$

Knowing the manometric pressure in point A of 70kPa, the height at point B of 1.5 meters, the density of water of 1000 kg/m^3 and the velocities calculated, the pressure at B results:

$Pb = 70000Pa+ \frac{1}{2}*1000\ \frac{kg}{m^3}*((1.9m/s)^2 - (7.63m/s)^2) - 1000\frac{kg}{m^3}*9,81\frac{m}{s^2}*1.5m$

$Pb = 70000\ Pa-27303\ Pa - 14715\ Pa$

$Pb = 27,996\ Pa = 28\ kPa$

6 0

3 years ago

52 points+Brainliest for correct answer

pentagon [3]

Divide by 6 and divide the caw of squaw squaw

4 0

2 years ago

What are some qualities of a good engineer? Explain why each characteristic is important. (2-3 sentences minimum)

natali 33 [55]

A good engineer is smart.

8 0

3 years ago

For the SR-latch below high levels of Set and Reset result in Q= 1 and 0, respectively. The next state is unknown when both inpu

dusya [7]

Answer:

hello your question lacks the required image attached to this answer is the image required

answer : NOR1(q_) wave is complementary to NOR2(q)

Explanation:

Note ; NOR 2 will be addressed as q in the course of this solution while NOR 1 will be addressed as q_

Initial state is unknown i.e q = 0 and q_= 1

from the diagram the waveform reset and set

= from 0ns to 20ns reset=1 and set=0.from the truth table considering this given condition q=0 and q_bar=1 while

from 30ns to 50ns reset=0 and set=1.from the truth table considering this condition q=1 and q_bar=1.so from 35ns also note there is a delay of 5 ns for the NOR gate hence the NOR 2 will be higher ( 1 )

From 50ns to 65ns both set and reset is 0.so NOR2(q)=0.

From 65 to 75 set=1 and reset=0,so our NOR 2(q)=1 checking from the truth table

also from 75 to 90 set=1 and reset=1 , NOR2(q) is undefined "?" and is mentioned up to 95ns.

since q_ is a complement of q, then NOR1(q_) wave is complementary to NOR2(q)