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laiz [17]
4 years ago
8

After a short time, the moving sled with the child aboard reached a rough level surface that exerts a constant frictional force

of 54 Newtons on the sled. How much work must be done by friction to bring the sled with the child to a stop

Physics
2 answers:
valentina_108 [34]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Wf = –750J

Explanation:

The full solution can be found in the attachment below.

This problem involves the concepts of conservation of momentum and energy.

The potential energy of the sled and child combined is constant since thehy are moving in a level surface.

To find the initial velocity of the sled with child we use the principle of momentum conservation to calculate the v1 which is the commovelocity of the child and sled.

Alex73 [517]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Incomplete question

Complete question

A 50.-kilogram child running at 6.0 meters per second jumps onto a stationary 10.-kilogram sled. The sled is on a level frictionless surface.

After a short time, the moving sled with the child aboard reached a rough level surface that exerts a constant frictional force of 54 Newtons on the sled. How much work must be done by friction to bring the sled with the child to a stop.

Explanation:

The mass of the boy is

Mb=50kg

Mass of the sled

Ma=10kg

Velocity of the boy

Speed vb=6m/s

Now, we need to know the velocity of the boy and the sled Vt

Using law of momentum

Momentum before collision = momentum after collision

Mb×Vb=(Mb+Ms)Vt

50×6=(50+10)Vt

300=60Vt

Vt=300/60

Vt=5m/s

The kinetic energy of both the boy and the sled is the workdone by friction to to stop the sled

Kinetic enemy is given as

K.E=½mv²

K.E=½×60×5²

K.E=30×25

K.E=750J

So the work done by friction to stop the boy and the sled is -750J

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dimulka [17.4K]

The gravitational potential energy is 25.6 J

Explanation:

The gravitational potential energy (GPE) of an object is given by:

GPE = mgh

where

m is the mass of the object

g is the gravitational field strength

h is the height of the object above the ground

In this problem, we have

m = 8 kg is the mass of the brick

g = 1.6 N/kg is the gravitational field strength on the moon

h = 2 m is the height of the brick above the ground

Substituting,

GPE=(8)(1.6)(2)=25.6 J

Learn more about gravitational potential energy:

brainly.com/question/1198647

brainly.com/question/10770261

#LearnwithBrainly

4 0
3 years ago
an 80 kg cart goes around the inside of a vertical loop of a roller coaster. the radius of the loop is 5m and the cart moves at
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

F=  224 N

Explanation:

Given that

mass ,m = 80 kg

Radius ,r= 5 m

speed at the top v= 8 m/s

The force at the top = F

Now by using the Second law of Newton's

F+mg=\dfrac{mv^2}{r}

Now by putting the values

F+80\times 10 = \dfrac{80\times 8^}{5}

Take  g = 10 m/s²

F= \dfrac{80\times 8^2}{5}-800

F=  224 N

Therefore the force exerted by the track at the top position will be 224 N.

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If the kinetic and potential energy in a system are equal, then the potential energy increases. What happens as a result? Total
nexus9112 [7]
Energy of motion decreases
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Two uniform bars of the same dimensions are constructed from the same material. One bar has five evenly spaced holes through it
Elan Coil [88]

Solution :

The angular acceleration, $\alpha$ is obtained from the equation of the $\text{Newton's second law}$ of rotational motion,

Thus,

$\tau = F \times d$

or $\tau = I \times \alpha$

where $\tau$ is torque, F is force, d is moment arm distance, I is the moment of inertia

Thus, $\alpha=\frac{(F\times d)}{I}$

Now if the force and the moment arm distance are constant, then the \text{angular acceleration is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia.}

That is when, F = d = constant, then  $\alpha \propto \frac{1}{I}$ .

Thus, moment of inertia, I is proportional to mass of the bar.

The mass is less for the bar in case (1) in comparison with that with the bar in case (2) due to the holes that is made in the bar.

Therefore, the bar in case (1), has less moment of inertia and a greater angular acceleration.

6 0
3 years ago
(BRAINLIEST)
tankabanditka [31]
  • Cm=C
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ITs CGS unit.

Hence

  • CGS unit of Joules is erg.
  • 1J=1×10^7ergs

\\ \sf\longmapsto 15J=15\times 10^7ergs

4 0
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