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lesantik [10]
3 years ago
9

A crane is used to swing a 450 kg wrecking ball into a 500 kg wall. The crane takes 5 s to push the ball into the building. The

crane provides 2000 N of force. The ball is left moving 10 m/s after the collision. How fast is the wall moving afterwards? *
How does the kinetic energy change in the crane problem?
1. KE increases
2. KE decreases
3. KE stays the same


What type of collision is this?
elasti
inelastic
Physics
1 answer:
mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
3 0
This is a momentum problem, so let's find the velocity of the ball initially. It can be given by:
\vec{F} = m\vec{a}
Let's plug in values and solve for a:
\vec{a} = \frac{2000}{450} = 4.44 m/s^2
Now, we can multiply by time to get velocity:
\vec{v} = \vec{a}t = 4.44(5) = 22.2m/s

We have all the information we need, so let's set up an equation to solve for the velocity of the wall after the collision:
mv_{ib}= mv_{fb} + mv_{w}

Solve for velocity of wall finally:
v_w = \frac{mv_{ib}-mv_{fb}}{m}

Plug in all values:
v_w =  \frac{450(22.2)-450(10)}{500} = 10.98 \frac{m}{s}

So, the final velocity of the wall will be 10.98 m/s.
The KE in this problem initially was 110889 J (1/2mv^2). After the collision it was 52640.1 so, the KE decreased. 
Since there was no mashing of objects together, this was an elastic collision.

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ow long must a simple pendulum be if it is to make exactly ten swings per second? (That is, one complete vibration takes exactly
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The period T of a pendulum is given by:
T=2 \pi  \sqrt{ \frac{L}{g} }
where L is the length of the pendulum while g=9.81 m/s^2 is the gravitational acceleration.

In the pendulum of the problem, one complete vibration takes exactly 0.200 s, this means its period is T=0.200 s. Using this data, we can solve the previous formula to find L:
L=g ( \frac{T}{2\pi} )^2=(9.81 m/s^2)( \frac{0.2 s}{2 \pi} )^2=1 \cdot 10^{-3} m=1 mm
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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 5.00 kg object oscillates back and forth at the end ofa spring whose spring constant is 49.3 N/m. An obersever istraveling at
defon

Answer:

5.571 sec

Explanation:

angular frequency = √ (k/m) = √ (49.3 / 5) = 3.14 rad/s

Period To = 2π / angular frequency

Period To = 2π/3.14 = 2 × 3.14 / 3.142 = 2.00 sec which you got

T measured by the observer = To / (√ (1 - (v²/c²))) = 2 / √( 1 - 0.871111) = 2 / 0.35901 = 5.571 sec

t=2.00/(1-√((2.80*10^8)^2/(3.00*10^8)^2))= should have been  ( To / (√ (1 - (v²/c²))).  where To = 2.00 sec

8 0
3 years ago
The volume of liquid flowing per second is called the volume flow rate Q and has the dimensions of [L]3/[T]. The flow rate of li
melamori03 [73]

Answer: n=4

Explanation:

We have the following expression for the volume flow rate Q of a hypodermic needle:

Q=\frac{\pi R^{n}(P_{2}-P_{1})}{8\eta L}  (1)

Where the dimensions of each one is:

Volume flow rate Q=\frac{L^{3}}{T}

Radius of the needle R=L

Length of the needle L=L

Pressures at opposite ends of the needle P_{2} and P_{1}=\frac{M}{LT^{2}}

Viscosity of the liquid \eta=\frac{M}{LT}

We need to find the value of n whicha has no dimensions, and in order to do this, we have to rewritte (1) with its dimensions:

\frac{L^{3}}{T}=\frac{\pi L^{n}(\frac{M}{LT^{2}})}{8(\frac{M}{LT}) L}  (2)

We need the right side of the equation to be equal to the left side of the equation (in dimensions):

\frac{L^{3}}{T}=\frac{\pi}{8} \frac{ L^{n}}{LT}  (3)

\frac{L^{3}}{T}=\frac{\pi}{8} \frac{ L^{n-1}}{T}  (4)

As we can see n must be 4 if we want the exponent to be 3:

\frac{L^{3}}{T}=\frac{\pi}{8} \frac{ L^{4-1}}{T}  (5)

Finally:

\frac{L^{3}}{T}=\frac{\pi}{8} \frac{ L^{3}}{T}  (6)

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