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o-na [289]
2 years ago
15

Diffraction supports the: A. wave theory of light. B. particle theory of light.

Physics
2 answers:
Artemon [7]2 years ago
8 0
The answer is a hope its helps you
yanalaym [24]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Diffraction support particle theory of light.

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To minimize neutron leakage from a reactor, the ratio of the surface area to the volume should be a minimum. For a given volume V the ratio of the sphere will be \frac{4.83598}{c^{\frac{1}{3} } }.

We know that the surface area and volume of the sphere is given by:

A=4 \pi r^{2}\\V=\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}

Therefore, the ratio between the surface area and the volume for the sphere will be:

\frac{A}{V}=\frac{4 \pi r^{2}\\}{\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}}=\frac{3}{r}

Equating the volume to the constant c, we will find the value of r.

V=c=\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\\r= (\frac{3c}{4\pi} )^{\frac{1}{3} }

Substituting the value of r in the ration between surface area and volume, we get:

\frac{A}{V}=\frac{3}{ (\frac{3c}{4\pi} )^{\frac{1}{3} }}

Calculating the constants, we get:

\frac{4.83598}{c^{\frac{1}{3} } }

Hence, the ration between surface area and volume is \frac{4.83598}{c^{\frac{1}{3} } }

To learn more about surface area and volume of sphere, refer to:

brainly.com/question/4387241

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Scientists are working on a new technique to kill cancer cells by zapping them with ultrahigh-energy (in the range of 1012 W) pu
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Answer:

the best way to prevent cancer is to eat right

Explanation:

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3 years ago
The light waves have that particular interference from question #1 because they are emitted _____.
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I am attaching the rest of your question so it makes sense, 
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Since lasers are made from stacking light waves that add together into a larger wave due to CONSTRUCTIVE INTERFERENCE.
</span>
Then, <span>light waves have that constructive interference (from question #1) because they are emitted IN PHASE with each other.

This means that they arrive at the same point of space with the same characteristics and their effects do not cancel each other, but the opposite, their intensity increases.</span>

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3 years ago
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A 6.0 kg mass is placed on a 20º incline which has a coefficient of friction of 0.15. What is the acceleration of the mass down
Leona [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

The form of Newton's 2nd Law that we use for this is:

F - f = ma where F is the Force pulling the mass down the ramp forward, f is the friction trying to keep it from moving forward, m is the mass and a is the acceleration (and our unknown).

We know mass and we can find f, but we don't have F. But we can solve for that by rewriting our main equation to reflect F:

wsin\theta-\mu F_n=ma That's everything we need.

w is weight: 6.0(9.8). Filling in:

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Force is mass times acceleration. This means an object with a larger mass needs a stronger force to be moved along at the same acceleration as an object with a small mass
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