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d1i1m1o1n [39]
3 years ago
10

If the length of a ramp is increased, what will happen to the input force?

Physics
1 answer:
Art [367]3 years ago
3 0
The input force will increase too because the more the ramp is increasing the more force is being put on the object going down the ramp... hope this helps ^-^
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Calculate the Latent Heat of Vaporization. (Please see picture attached)
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

20 J/g

Explanation:

In this question, we are required to determine the latent heat of vaporization

  • To answer the question, we need to ask ourselves the questions:

What is latent heat of vaporization?

  • It is the amount of heat required to change a substance from its liquid state to gaseous state without change in temperature.
  • It is the amount of heat absorbed by a substance as it boils.

How do we calculate the latent heat of vaporization?

  • Latent heat is calculated by dividing the amount of heat absorbed by the mass of the substance.

In this case;

  • Mass of the substance = 20 g
  • Heat absorbed as the substance boils is 400 J (1000 J - 600 J)

Thus,

Latent heat of vaporization = Quantity of Heat ÷ Mass

                                             = 400 Joules ÷ 20 g

                                             = 20 J/g

Thus, the latent heat of vaporization is 20 J/g

7 0
3 years ago
The critical angle for water is 49°. If a ray of light
Sonja [21]

Answer:

Snell's Law states

Ni sin i = Nr sin r

Judging from the question the source of the ray is in the water (directed up)

or NI = 1 / sin 49      Ni = 1.325 deg     the critical angle

From inside the pond:

Nr = 1.325 * sin 45 / 1 = 94 deg  

So refraction can occur  outside the pond and you do not have total internal refection.

 

3 0
3 years ago
Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures A. Celsius B. Joule C. Fahrenheit D. Kelvin
Brilliant_brown [7]
The Kelvin scale has no negatives on it.

Zero Kelvin is 'Absolute Zero', and nothing can get colder than that.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why are the wheels on a roller coaster hot after a ride. (I know it’s due to friction but I need more of a detailed answer).
telo118 [61]
2 someone's glasses could fall of because of the inertia
roller coaster is in motion but your glasses are opposing and resisting that motion due to inertia....

1 there is a possibility that electrons move from wheels to the rail and vice versa which also means that it is producing some kind of electrical energy

3 question can't answer
8 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

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5 0
3 years ago
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