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kompoz [17]
3 years ago
11

Steam enters an adiabatic turbine at 400◦C, 2 MPa pressure. The turbine has an isentropic efficiency of 0.9. The exit pressure i

s set so that the actual work output from the turbine is 700 kJ/kg. Determine the required exit pressure and the actual exit temperature and quality, if saturated.

Engineering
1 answer:
pychu [463]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Find attached the solution

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Select the best answer for the question.
dalvyx [7]
I think the Acid level
5 0
3 years ago
How many electrons move past a fixed reference point every t = 2.55 ps if the current is i = 7.3 μA ? Express your answer as an
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

116.3 electrons

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Time, t = 2.55 ps = 2.55 × 10⁻¹² s

Current, i = 7.3 μA = 7.3 × 10⁻⁶ A

Now,

we know,

Charge, Q = it

thus,

Q = (7.3 × 10⁻⁶) × (2.55 × 10⁻¹²)

or

Q = 18.615 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

Also,

We know

Charge of 1 electron, q = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

Therefore,

Number of electrons past a fixed point = Q ÷ q

= [ 18.615 × 10⁻¹⁸ ] ÷ [ 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ ]

= 116.3 electrons

4 0
3 years ago
A center-point bending test was performed on a 2 in. x d in. wood lumber according to ASTM D198 procedure with a span of 4 ft an
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

3.03 INCHES

Explanation:

According to ASTM D198 ;

Modulus of rupture = ( M / I ) * y  ----- ( 1 )

M ( bending moment ) = R * length of span / 2

                                     = (120 * 10^3 ) * 48 / 2 = 288 * 10^4 Ib-in

I ( moment of inertia ) = bd^3 / 12

                                    = ( 2 )*( d )^3  / 12 =  2d^3 / 12

b = 2 in ,  d = ?

length of span = 4 * 12 = 48 inches

R = P  / 2 =  240 * 10^3 / 2 =   120 * 10^3 Ib

y ( centroid distance ) = d / 2  inches

back to equation ( 1 )

( M / I ) * y

940.3 ksi = ( 288 * 10^4 / 2d^3 / 12 ) * d / 2

                = ( 288 * 10^4 * 12 ) / 2d^3 )  * d / 2

940300  = 34560000* d / 4d^3

4d^3 ( 940300 ) = 34560000 d  ( divide both sides with d )

4d^2 = 34560000 / 940300

d^2 = 9.188   ∴ Value of d ≈ 3.03 in

8 0
3 years ago
A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f
dangina [55]

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

7 0
3 years ago
The given family of functions is the general solution of the differential equation on the indicated interval.Find a member of th
Alja [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

y'''+y=0---(i)

General solution

y=c_1e^o^x+c_2\cos x +c_3 \sin x\\\\\Rightarrow y=c_1+c_2 \cos x+c_3 \sin x---(ii)\\\\y(\pi)=0\\\\\Rightarrow 0=c_1+c_2\cos (\pi)+c_3\sin (\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow c_1-c_2=0\\\\c_1=c_2---(iii)

y'=-c_2\cos x+c_3\cosx\\\\y'(\pi)=2\\\\\Rightarrow2=-c_2\sin(\pi)+c_3\cos(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-c_2(0)+c_3(-1)=2\\\\\Rightarrow c_3=-2\\\\y''-c_2\cos x -c_3\sin x\\\\y''(\pi)=-1\\\\\Rightarrow-1=-c_2 \cos (\pi)=c_3\sin(\pi)\\\\\Rightarrow-1=c_2-0\\\\\Rightarrow c_2=-1

in equation (iii)

c_1=c_2=-1

Therefore,

\large\boxed{y=-1-\cos x-2\sin x}

5 0
3 years ago
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