If John mows 11.5 meters of lawn from east

when a person uses an iron to remove the wrinkles from a shirt, why does heat travel from the iron to the shirt?

artcher [175]

I think the answer to your question is that:
There is chemical energy being produced (by the water) and that causes the base of iron to absorb the heat. Then when the heated base of the iron is placed onto the shirt, the heat flattens the wrinkles on it.

3 0

3 years ago

39 g aluminum spoon (specific heat 0.904 J/g·°C) at 24°C is placed in 166 mL (166 g) of coffee at 83°C and the temperature of th

tatuchka [14]

<u>Answer:</u> The final temperature of the solution is $80.14^oC$

<u>Explanation:</u>

The amount of heat released by coffee will be absorbed by aluminium spoon.

Thus, $\text{heat}_{absorbed}=\text{heat}_{released}$

To calculate the amount of heat released or absorbed, we use the equation:

$Q=m\times c\times \Delta T=m\times c\times (T_{final}-T_{initial})$

Also,

$m_1\times c_1\times (T_{final}-T_1)=-[m_2\times c_2\times (T_{final}-T_2)]$ ..........(1)

where,

q = heat absorbed or released

$m_1$ = mass of aluminium = 39 g

$m_2$ = mass of coffee = 166 g

$T_{final}$ = final temperature = ?

$T_1$ = temperature of aluminium = $24^oC$

$T_2$ = temperature of coffee = $83^oC$

$c_1$ = specific heat of aluminium = $0.904J/g^oC$

$c_2$ = specific heat of coffee= $4.1801J/g^oC$

Putting all the values in equation 1, we get:

$39\times 0.904\times (T_{final}-24)=-[166\times 4.1801\times (T_{final}-83)]$

$T_{final}=80.14^oC$

Hence, the final temperature of the solution is $80.14^oC$

4 0

3 years ago

Please help i don't understand. will mark brainliest

soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

marblebrainiest plz\c cmarble

Explanation:

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

______ had occurred when your body can no longer regulate its temperature

sergejj [24]

Heat stroke had occurred when your body can no longer regulate its temperature. hope it helps :)

4 0

2 years ago

A thin uniform rod of mass M and length L is bent at its center so that the two segments are now perpendicular to each other. Fi

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

(a) I_A=1/12ML²

(b) I_B=1/3ML²

Explanation:

We know that the moment of inertia of a rod of mass M and lenght L about its center is 1/12ML².

(a) If the rod is bent exactly at its center, the distance from every point of the rod to the axis doesn't change. Since the moment of inertia depends on the distance of every mass to this axis, the moment of inertia remains the same. In other words, I_A=1/12ML².

(b) The two ends and the point where the two segments meet form an isorrectangle triangle. So the distance between the ends d can be calculated using the Pythagorean Theorem:

$d=\sqrt{(\frac{1}{2}L) ^{2}+(\frac{1}{2}L) ^{2} } =\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}L^{2} } =\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} } L=\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} L$

Next, the point where the two segments meet, the midpoint of the line connecting the two ends of the rod, and an end of the rod form another rectangle triangle, so we can calculate the distance between the two axis x using Pythagorean Theorem again:

$x=\sqrt{(\frac{1}{2}L)^{2}-(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}L) ^{2} } =\sqrt{\frac{1}{8} L^{2} } =\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} L=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} L$

Finally, using the Parallel Axis Theorem, we calculate I_B:

$I_B=I_A+Mx^{2} \\\\I_B=\frac{1}{12} ML^{2} +\frac{1}{4} ML^{2} =\frac{1}{3} ML^{2}$

5 0

2 years ago