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3 years ago

An object moving at a constant velocity will always have a what

Physics

2 answers:

NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago

8 0

An object moving at a constant velocity will always have a zero acceleration.

telo118 [61]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

zero acceleration

Explanation:

Acceleration is defined as the rate change of velocity with respect to time

This means that:

$acceleration = \frac{delta_v_e_l_o_c_i_t_y}{delta_t_i_m_e}$

Now, since the velocity is given as a constant, this means that the value of the velocity does not change which means that the change of velocity is zero.

Substitute in the formula:

$acceleration = \frac{0}{delta_t_i_m_e} = 0$

Therefore, for constant velocity, the acceleration is zero.

Hope this helps :)

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A 40.0-mH inductor is connected to a North American electrical outlet (ΔVrms = 120 V, f = 60.0 Hz). Assuming the energy stored i

trasher [3.6K]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Inductance, $L=40\ mH=40\times 10^{-3}\ H$

RMS value of voltage, $v_{rms}=120\ V$

Frequency, f = 60 Hz

We need to find the energy stored at t = (1 /185) s. It is assumed that energy stored in the inductor is zero at t = 0. So,

The current flowing through the inductor is given by :

$I_t=\dfrac{V_o}{X_L}\ (sin\ \omega t-\dfrac{\pi}{2})$

$I_t=\dfrac{\sqrt{2} V_{rms}}{X_L}\ (sin\ \omega t-\dfrac{\pi}{2})$

$I_t=\dfrac{120\sqrt{2}}{2\pi f L}\ sin(2\pi f t-\dfrac{\pi}{2})$

$I_t=\dfrac{120\sqrt{2}}{2\pi\times 60\times 40\times 10^{-3}}\ sin(2\pi \times 60\times \dfrac{1}{185})-\dfrac{\pi}{2})$

$I_t=\dfrac{120\sqrt2}{15.07}\ sin(2\pi \times 60\times \dfrac{1}{185}-\dfrac{\pi}{2})$

I = 0.091 A

Energy stored in the inductor is, $U=\dfrac{1}{2}LI^2$

$U=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 40\times 10^{-3}\times (0.091)^2$

U = 0.000165 Joules

Hence, this is the required solution.

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