Why would a flat sheet of paper and a wad of paper not fall through the air at the same rate

Calculate the phase angle (in radians) for a circuit with a maximum voltage of 12 V and w-50 Hz. The voltage source is connected

Vinvika [58]

Answer:

The phase angle is 0.0180 rad.

(c) is correct option.

Explanation:

Given that,

Voltage = 12 V

Angular velocity = 50 Hz

Capacitance $C= 20\times10^{-2}\ F$

Inductance $L=20\times10^{-3}\ H$

Resistance $R= 50\ Omega$

We need to calculate the impedance

Using formula of impedance

$z=\sqrt{R^2+(\omega L-\dfrac{1}{\omega C})^2}$

$z=\sqrt{50^2+(50\times20\times10^{-3}-\dfrac{1}{50\times20\times10^{-2}})^2}$

$z=50.00$

We need to calculate the phase angle

Using formula of phase angle

$\theta=\cos^{-1}(\dfrac{R}{z})$

$\theta=\cos^{-1}(\dfrac{50}{50.00})$

$\theta=0.0180\ rad$

Hence, The phase angle is 0.0180 rad.

3 0

3 years ago

What is the change in potential energy if the distance separating the electron and proton is increased to 1.0 nm?

Vlada [557]

Answer:

$Ep=-2.3*10^{-19}J$

Explanation:

The change in potential energy can be expressed as:

$Ep=K.\frac{q1.q2}{r}$

where K is a constant with a value of $9*10^{9}\frac{N.m^{2}}{C^{2}}$ , q1 and q2 are the charges of the proton and the electron and r is the distance between them.

The charge for the proton is $+1.6*10^{-19}C$ and the charge for the electron is $-1.6*10^{-19}C$ .

Converting r=1.0nm to m:

$1.0nm*\frac{1*10^{-9}m}{1.0nm}=1*10^{-9}m$

Replacing values:

$Ep=9*10^{9}\frac{N.m^{2}}{C^{2}}.\frac{(+1.6*10^{-19}C).(-1.6*10^{-19}C)}{1*10^{-9}m}$

$Ep=-2.3*10^{-19}J$

5 0

3 years ago

A top-fuel dragster starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 42.0 m/s2. What are (a) the final velocity of the dragst

disa [49]

Answer:

a) Final velocity of the dragster at the end of 1.8 s = 75.6 m/s

b) Final velocity of the dragster at the end of 3.6 s = 151.2 m/s

c) The displacement of the dragster at the end of 1.8 s = 68.04 m

d) The displacement of the dragster at the end of 3.6 s = 272.16 m

Explanation:

a) We have equation of motion v = u + at

Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s

Acceleration , a = 42 m/s²

Time = 1.8 s

Substituting

v = u + at

v = 0 + 42 x 1.8 = 75.6 m/s

Final velocity of the dragster at the end of 1.8 s = 75.6 m/s

b) We have equation of motion v = u + at

Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s

Acceleration , a = 42 m/s²

Time = 3.6 s

Substituting

v = u + at

v = 0 + 42 x 3.6 = 75.6 m/s

Final velocity of the dragster at the end of 3.6 s = 151.2 m/s

c) We have equation of motion s= ut + 0.5 at²

Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s

Acceleration , a = 42 m/s²

Time = 1.8 s

Substituting

s= ut + 0.5 at²

s = 0 x 1.8 + 0.5 x 42 x 1.8²

s = 68.04 m

The displacement of the dragster at the end of 1.8 s = 68.04 m

d) We have equation of motion s= ut + 0.5 at²

Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s

Acceleration , a = 42 m/s²

Time = 3.6 s

Substituting

s= ut + 0.5 at²

s = 0 x 3.6 + 0.5 x 42 x 3.6²

s = 272.16 m

The displacement of the dragster at the end of 3.6 s = 272.16 m

3 0

3 years ago

What is the formula for the moment of inertia of the person/single particle rotating in a circle? (Give these values with a subs

Ann [662]

Moment of inertia of single particle rotating in circle is I1 = 1/2 (m*r^2)

The value of the moment of inertia when the person is on the edge of the merry-go-round is I2=1/3 (m*L^2)

Moment of Inertia refers to:

the quantity expressed by the body resisting angular acceleration.
It the sum of the product of the mass of every particle with its square of a distance from the axis of rotation.

The moment of inertia of single particle rotating in a circle I1 = 1/2 (m*r^2)

here We note that the,

In the formula, r being the distance from the point particle to the axis of rotation and m being the mass of disk.

The value of the moment of inertia when the person is on the edge of the merry-go-round is determined with parallel-axis theorem:

I(edge) = I (center of mass) + md^2

d be the distance from an axis through the object’s center of mass to a new axis.

I2(edge) = 1/3 (m*L^2)

learn more about moment of Inertia here:

<u>brainly.com/question/14226368</u>

#SPJ4

7 0

2 years ago

Plz help me

Reil [10]

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

When an object has more mass it takes more gravity to keep it down therefore producing friction which in return reduces the amount of kinetic energy created. A change in an object's speed has an greater effect on its kinetic energy. than a change in its mass has, because kinetic energy is proportional to.

3 0

4 years ago