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3 years ago

One way to decrease the inertia of an object is to

Physics

2 answers:

ANTONII [103]3 years ago

8 0

The only way to decrease the inertia of an object is to remove some of its mass. (B)

kipiarov [429]3 years ago

7 0

B.

I need to fulfill a character requirement so...$1&:&/&2&&:&;& kwkdndksjwken fjwown fnfj

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Determine qual é a carga elétrica de um corpo que possui 1 milhão de partículas?

MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

This can be translated to:

"find the electrical charge of a body that has 1 million of particles".

First, it will depend on the charge of the particles.

If all the particles have 1 electron more than protons, we will have that the charge of each particle is q = -e = -1.6*10^-19 C

Then the total charge of the body will be:

Q = 1,000,000*-1.6*10^-19 C = -1.6*10^-13 C

If we have the inverse case, where we in each particle we have one more proton than the number of electrons, the total charge will be the opposite of the one of before (because the charge of a proton is equal in magnitude but different in sign than the charge of an electron)

Q = 1.6*10^-13 C

But commonly, we will have a spectrum with the particles, where some of them have a positive charge and some of them will have a negative charge, so we will have a probability of charge that is peaked at Q = 0, this means that, in average, the charge of the particles is canceled by the interaction between them.

7 0

3 years ago

A thin coil has 17 rectangular turns of wire. When a current of 4 A runs through the coil, there is a total flux of 5 ✕ 10−3 T ·

Alex73 [517]

Answer:

Inductance, L = 0.0212 Henries

Explanation:

It is given that,

Number of turns, N = 17

Current through the coil, I = 4 A

The total flux enclosed by the one turn of the coil, $\phi=5\times 10^{-3}\ Tm^2$

The relation between the self inductance and the magnetic flux is given by :

$L=\dfrac{N\phi}{I}$

$L=\dfrac{17\times 5\times 10^{-3}}{4}$

L = 0.0212 Henries

So, the inductance of the coil is 0.0212 Henries. Hence, this is the required solution.

7 0

3 years ago

A horizontal line on a displacement-time graph means the object is

r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

traveling further away

Explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

A piano mover raises a 1000-n piano at a constant speed using a very light rope in a frictionless pulley system, as shown in the

Rina8888 [55]

Here As we can see the figure that the end of the rope is pulled by some force F

Now as we can see that Piano is connected by a pulley which is passing over the pulley so effectively net force on the piano upwards will be 2F as it is connected by 2 ropes by the pulley

Now for constant velocity of the piano we will say

$2F - mg = ma$

since velocity is constant so acceleration must be ZERO

so here we have

$2F - mg = 0$

as we know here that

mg = 1000 N

so we will have

$2F - 1000 = 0$

$F = 500 N$

so here force must be 500 N

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Light-rail passenger trains that provide transportation within and between cities speed up and slow down with a nearly constant

Elena L [17]

Answer:

19 m/s

Explanation:

The complete question requires the final speed to be calculated.

Velocity is the rate and direction at which an object moves. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity per unit time and can be calculated by the difference in velocity over a given time.

For this question, first the unknown acceleration must be calculated and used to determine the final velocity

Step 1: Calculate the acceleration

$a=\frac{v_{2}-v{1}}{t_{1}}$