Answer:
The relation between frequency and time period is given by:
f = 1/T
Explanation:
In a wave motion, the particle move about the mean position with the passage of time. The particles rise to reach the highest point which is crest, and similarly falls to reach the lowest point which is trough. The cycle keeps on repeating.
The time period of the wave can be defined as the time taken to complete one such cycle. Time period is given by:
T = 2π/ω
Frequency can be defined as the number of cycles completed in unit time, which can be taken as the inverse of time period. frequency is given by
f = ω/2π
or
f = 1/T
Answer:
final kinetic energy of the hammer is 10 kJ
Explanation:
As we know that there is no non conservative force on the system
So here we can use the theory of mechanical energy conservation
So we will have
here we know that
from above expression now
so final kinetic energy of the hammer is 10 kJ
Answer:
I think A is the correct .
Explanation:
Hope this will help you.
The resultant force on the object is
∑ <em>F</em> = 〈0, 8〉 N + 〈6, 0〉 N = 〈6, 8〉 N
which has a magnitude of
<em>F</em> = √((6 N)² + (8 N)²) = √(100 N²) = 10 N
By Newton's second law, the acceleration has magnitude <em>a</em> such that
<em>F</em> = <em>m a</em>
10 N = (2 kg) <em>a</em>
<em>a</em> = (10 N) / (2 kg)
<em>a</em> = 5 m/s²
so the answer is B.
Answer:
in pulley there are different kinds.but the most common one are fixed,moveable and compound pulley. in this question we asked about movable pulley.
Explanation:
Given request solutions
L=500N a,M.A=? a,M.A=L/E =5/3
E=300N b,V.R=? b,V.R=2
c,efficiency =? c,£=M.A/V.R=5/6
£=IS NOT THE REAL SYMBOLS OF EFFICIENCY BUT I IS LOOK LIKE THIS
I THINK I HELPED
