All categories

3 years ago

The higher the value of the coefficient of friction, the _______ the resistance to sliding.

2 answers:

7 0

The higher the value of the coefficient of friction, the more the resistance to sliding. The answer is the more the resistance to sliding. The coefficient of friction is a measure of how easily one object moves over another object. It is a ratio of: Force to move the object / weight of the object (or Normal Force)

MrRa [10]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

More APEX Verified

Explanation:

You might be interested in

What is the density of a piece of quartz with a mass of 30g and a volume of 6cm^3

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

$\boxed {\boxed {\sf d= 5 \ g/cm^3}}$

Explanation:

Density can be found by dividing the mass by the volume.

$d=\frac{m}{v}$

The mass of the quartz is 30 grams and the volume is 6 cubic centimeters.

$m=30 \ g \\v= 6 \ cm^3$

Substitute the values into the formula.

$d=\frac{30 \ g}{6 \ cm^3}$

Divide.

$d= 5 \ g/cm^3$

The density of this piece of quartz is 5 grams per cubic centimeter.

7 0

3 years ago

A wheel has a radius of r = 2.0 m and it rolls down a smooth incline. The height of the incline is h = 8.0 m . What is the angul

zepelin [54]

The angular velocity of the wheel at the bottom of the incline is 4.429 rad/sec

The angular velocity (ω) of an object is the rate at which the object's angle position is changing in relation to time.

For a wheel attached to an incline angle, the angular velocity can be computed by considering the conservation of energy theorem.

As such the total kinetic energy (K.E) and rotational kinetic energy (R.K.E) at a point is equal to the total potential energy (P.E) at the other point.

i.e.

P.E = K.E + R.K.E

$\mathbf{mgh = \dfrac{1}{2}m(r \times \omega)^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}\times I \times \omega^2}$

$\mathbf{gh = \dfrac{1}{2}(r \times \omega)^2 + \dfrac{1}{2}\times r^2 \times \omega^2}$

$\mathbf{2 \times \dfrac{gh}{r^2} =\omega^2 + \omega^2}$

$\mathbf{2 \omega^2=2 \times \dfrac{9.81 \times 8 m }{2.0 ^2} }$

$\mathbf{\omega^2=\dfrac{39.24 }{2}}$

$\mathbf{\omega=\sqrt{19.62 } \ rad/sec}$

$\mathbf{\omega=4.429 \ rad/sec}$

Therefore, we can conclude that the angular velocity of the wheel at the bottom of the incline is 4.429 rad/sec

Learn more about angular velocity here:

brainly.com/question/1452612

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do you calculate resistance with coulombs, time and J's?

Mars2501 [29]

Hey user

The energy E in joules (J) is equal to the voltage V in volts (V), times the electrical charge Q in coulombs (C):

E(J) = V(V) × Q(C)

joule = volt × coulomb

J = V × C

Example

What is the energy in joules that is consumed in an electrical circuit with voltage supply of 15V and charge flow of 4 coulombs?

E = 15V × 4C = 60J

4 0

3 years ago

The current through inductance L is given by I=I0e−t/τ

ohaa [14]

ΔVl = L di/dt
i = i₀e -t/T
di/dt = i₀ × (-1/T) e -t/T
ΔVl = L× (-I/T i₀e -t/T
ΔVl = -L/T i₀e -t/T

b. 15mm, i₀ = 36mA, T = 1.1m
t= Os
ΔVl = 0,491V
C. t = 1ms
ΔVl = 0.198V
t = 2ms
ΔVl = 0.08V

E. t = ms
ΔVl = 0.032V

6 0

3 years ago

Why was Bohr’s atomic model replaced by the modern atomic model ?

Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

a military base with aliens simple

Explanation:

5 0

2 years ago