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Jobisdone [24]
3 years ago
10

Two transverse waves travel along the same taut string. Wave 1 is described by y1(x, t) = A sin(kx - ωt), while wave 2 is descri

bed by y2(x, t) = A sin(kx + ωt + φ). The phases (arguments of the sines) are in radians, as usual, and A = 2.1 cm and φ = 0.35π rad.
Choose the answer that correctly describes the waves’ directions of travel.

MultipleChoice :

1) Both waves travel in the negative x direction.

2) Due to the φ term in the phase of wave 2, it does not travel. Wave 1 travels in the negative x-direction.

3) Due to the φ term in the phase of wave 2, it does not travel. Wave 1 travels in the positive x-direction.

4) Both waves travel in the positive x-direction.

5) Wave 1 travels in the negative x-direction, while wave 2 travels in the positive x-direction.

6) Wave 1 travels in the positive x-direction, while wave 2 travels in the negative x-direction.

7) There is not enough information.
Physics
1 answer:
Vadim26 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

6) Wave 1 travels in the positive x-direction, while wave 2 travels in the negative x-direction.

Explanation:

What matters is the part kx \pm \omega t, the other parts of the equation don't affect time and space variations. We know that when the sign is - the wave propagates to the positive direction while when the sign is + the wave propagates to the negative direction, but <em>here is an explanation</em> of this:

For both cases, + and -, after a certain time \delta t (\delta t >0), the displacement <em>y</em> of the wave will be determined by the kx\pm\omega (t+\delta t) term. For simplicity, if we imagine we are looking at the origin (x=0), this will be simply \pm \omega (t+\delta t).

To know which side, right or left of the origin, would go through the origin after a time \delta t (and thus know the direction of propagation) we have to see how we can achieve that same displacement <em>y</em> not by a time variation but by a space variation \delta x (we would be looking where in space is what we would have in the future in time). The term would be then k(x+\delta x)\pm\omega t, which at the origin is k \delta x \pm \omega t. This would mean that, when the original equation has kx+\omega t, we must have that \delta x>0 for k\delta x+\omega t to be equal to kx+\omega\delta t, and when the original equation has kx-\omega t, we must have that \delta x for k\delta x-\omega t to be equal to kx-\omega \delta t

<em>Note that their values don't matter, although they are a very small variation (we have to be careful since all this is inside a sin function), what matters is if they are positive or negative and as such what is possible or not .</em>

<em />

In conclusion, when kx+\omega t, the part of the wave on the positive side (\delta x>0) is the one that will go through the origin, so the wave is going in the negative direction, and viceversa.

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A long straight wire carries current to the right of the page. A rectangular loop is positioned directly under the wire in the p
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

Correct option A.

The net force exerted by this loop on the straight wire with the current is directed TOWARDS THE LOOP

Explanation:

The magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire in a direction given by the right-hand rule 1 (the same direction as that on the individual moving charges). This force can easily be large enough to move the wire since typical currents consist of very large numbers of moving charges.

Given that,

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Since the 'dot' field is increasing hence the induced magnetic field is 'cross', i.e. into the page and by the right-hand rule, the induced current is clockwise.

Then the magnetic field is into the page.

Since was known that

F= iL×B

Note the current is through the wire. Then, the length is in direction of the current.

Note: this equation gives the magnetic force that acts on a length L of a straight wire carrying a current (i) and immersed in a uniform magnetic field (B), that is perpendicular to the wire.

So, the magnetic field is always perpendicular to the current.

So using right hand rule,

F = i(L×B)

The length is to the right i.e. +x direction and the Magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane, i.e. in the +z direction

F = i (L•i × B•k)

F = iLB (i×k)

F = iLB•(-j)

F = -iLB•j

Then, the force is in the negative y-direction i.e. towards the loop.

8 0
4 years ago
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Svetllana [295]
1 millimeter.

1 centimeter is 1/100th of a meter (1 cent of a meter). 
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c.) Compute the estimated theoretical maximum delay that can be generated if a microcontroller runs at 48Mhz and it takes three
Lisa [10]

Answer:

 

T1 = 1/12  x 48 MHz = 4 MHz

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The time delay of one machine cycle is given below. We use this to generate the delay.

T2= 1/ 4000000= 0.25 µ sec

For delay of 10 ms:

1. Firstly divide the desired time delay value (10 ms) by the timer clock period.

N=  1 / 0.25µs

N= 10 ms / 0.25µsec

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2. Subtract the value of N from the maximum number of counts possible for 16 bit timer i.e. 2^16 = 65536.

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M= 25536

Explanation:

Clock source:

5 0
3 years ago
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