How many stars are on the us flag?

If one light bulb burns out in a string of lights, and the rest stay lit, it is reasonable to assume that the lights are wired i

Blizzard [7]

The lights are wired in PARALLEL.

In fact, when the lights are connected in parallel, they are connected on separate branches to the source of voltage, so if one light bulb burns out, the other lights continue to work because the current continues to flow in the other branches of the circuit.

Vice-versa, if the light bulbs are connected in series, they are on the same branch This means that if one of them burns out, the circuit is open in that point, so the current cannot flow anymore and the other light bulbs turn off as well.

4 0

2 years ago

A force of 660 n stretches a certain spring a distance of 0.300 m. what is the potential energy of the spring when a 70.0 kg mas

kkurt [141]

A force of 660 n stretches a certain spring a distance of 0.300 m. what is the potential energy of the spring when a 70.0 kg mass hangs vertically from it?

5 0

3 years ago

Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by

Ulleksa [173]

A) $v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

B) $r=\frac{mv}{qB}$

C) $T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

D) $\omega=\frac{qB}{m}$

E) $r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

$\Delta U = qV$

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

$\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

$qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

$F=qvB$

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

$F=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

$qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference ( $2\pi r$ ) and the velocity of the particle (v):

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}$ (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}$ (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

$T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}$

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

which can be rewritten as

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

$K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}$

And substitutin into (4), we find:

$r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0

3 years ago

A uniformly charged, one-dimensional rod of length L has total positive charge Q. Itsleft end is located at x = ????L and its ri

GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

$|\vec{F}| = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))$

Explanation:

The force on the point charge q exerted by the rod can be found by Coulomb's Law.

$\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\^r$

Unfortunately, Coulomb's Law is valid for points charges only, and the rod is not a point charge.

In this case, we have to choose an infinitesimal portion on the rod, which is basically a point, and calculate the force exerted by this point, then integrate this small force (dF) over the entire rod.

We will choose an infinitesimal portion from a distance 'x' from the origin, and the length of this portion will be denoted as 'dx'. The charge of this small portion will be 'dq'.

Applying Coulomb's Law:

$d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qdq}{x + x_0}(\^x)$

The direction of the force on 'q' is to the right, since both charges are positive, and they repel each other.

Now, we have to write 'dq' in term of the known quantities.

$\frac{Q}{L} = \frac{dq}{dx}\\dq = \frac{Qdx}{L}$

Now, substitute this into 'dF':

$d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQdx}{L(x+x_0)}(\^x)$

Now we can integrate dF over the rod.

$\vec{F} = \int{d\vec{F}} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}\int\limits^{L}_0 {\frac{1}{x+x_0}} \, dx = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))(\^x)$

4 0

3 years ago

What 1columb=?<br> please help

Juli2301 [7.4K]

Explanation:

it's a unit used to measure charge (C)

1C=1000millicoulombs

1millicoulomb=1000microcoulumbs

7 0

2 years ago

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