On a similar problem wherein instead of 480 g, a 650 gram of bar is used:
Angular momentum L = Iω, where
<span>I = the moment of inertia about the axis of rotation, which for a long thin uniform rod rotating about its center as depicted in the diagram would be 1/12mℓ², where m is the mass of the rod and ℓ is its length. The mass of this particular rod is not given but the length of 2 meters is. The moment of inertia is therefore </span>
<span>I = 1/12m*2² = 1/3m kg*m² </span>
<span>The angular momentum ω = 2πf, where f is the frequency of rotation. If the angular momentum is to be in SI units, this frequency must be in revolutions per second. 120 rpm is 2 rev/s, so </span>
<span>ω = 2π * 2 rev/s = 4π s^(-1) </span>
<span>The angular momentum would therefore be </span>
<span>L = Iω </span>
<span>= 1/3m * 4π </span>
<span>= 4/3πm kg*m²/s, where m is the rod's mass in kg. </span>
<span>The direction of the angular momentum vector - pseudovector, actually - would be straight out of the diagram toward the viewer. </span>
<span>Edit: 650 g = 0.650 kg, so </span>
<span>L = 4/3π(0.650) kg*m²/s </span>
<span>≈ 2.72 kg*m²/s</span>
Answer:
Friction is useful in some cases like walking and cycling ..
but it is unwanted in machines as it create unwanted sounds and heat .,due to which we loss energy
Explanation:
mark me as brainliest ❤️
Answer:
The efficiency is 0.33, or 33%.
Explanation:
From the thermodynamics equations, we know that the formula for the efficiency of a heat engine is:
Where η is the efficiency of the engine, Q_1 is the heat energy taken from the hot source and Q_2 is the heat energy given to the cold object. So, plugging the given values in the formula, we obtain:
This means that the efficiency of the heat engine is 0.33, or 33% (The efficiency of an engine is dimensionless).
