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3 years ago

What do you know about earth?

Physics

2 answers:

Georgia [21]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Earth is the third planet from sun.
It's as for as we know, the only planet with living beings in it.
It is approximately 4.5 billion years old.
It takes exactly 23 hours, 58 minutes, and four seconds to complete one rotation.
And it takes 365 days to complete one revolution.

Hope this helps you...

solniwko [45]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:Our home planet Earth is a rocky, terrestrial planet. It has a solid and active surface with mountains, valleys, canyons, plains and so much more. Earth is special because it is an ocean planet. Water covers 70% of Earth's surface.

You might be interested in

PLEASE HELP ASAP!!!!!

Igoryamba

While falling, both the sheet of paper and the paper ball experience air resistance. But the surface area of the sheet is much more than that of the spherical ball. And air resistance varies directly with surface area. Hence the sheet experiences more air resistance than the ball and it falls more slowly than the paper ball.

Hope that helps!

8 0

3 years ago

A particle has a charge of q = +4.9 μC and is located at the origin. As the drawing shows, an electric field of Ex = +242 N/C ex

irina1246 [14]

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=0$

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=0$

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+z axis)

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+x axis)

$F_{B_x}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (+y axis)

$F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (-x axis)

Explanation:

The electric force exerted on a charged particle is given by

$F=qE$

where

q is the charge

E is the electric field

For a positive charge, the direction of the force is the same as the electric field.

In this problem:

$q=+4.9\mu C=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C$ is the charge

$E_x=+242 N/C$ is the electric field, along the x-direction

So the electric force (along the x-direction) is:

$F_{E_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(242)=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$

towards positive x-direction.

The magnetic force instead is given by

$F=qvB sin \theta$

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the charge

B is the magnetic field

$\theta$ is the angle between the directions of v and B

Here the charge is stationary: this means $v=0$ , therefore the magnetic force due to each component of the magnetic field is zero.

In this case, the particle is moving along the +x axis.

The magnitude of the electric force does not depend on the speed: therefore, the electric force on the particle here is the same as in part a,

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N$ (towards positive x-direction)

Concerning the magnetic force, we have to analyze the two different fields:

- $B_x$ : this field is parallel to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=0^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is zero.

$- B_y$ : this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ . Therefore, $\theta=90^{\circ}$ , so the force due to this field is:

$F_{B_y}=qvB_y$

where:

$q=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C$ is the charge

$v=345 m/s$ is the velocity

$B_y = +1.9 T$ is the magnetic field

Substituting,

$F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And the direction of this force can be found using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: direction of the velocity (+x axis)

- Middle finger: direction of the magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: direction of the force (+z axis)

As in part b), the electric force has not change, since it does not depend on the veocity of the particle:

$F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N$ (+x axis)

For the field $B_x$ , the velocity (+z axis) is now perpendicular to the magnetic field (+x axis), so the force is

$F_{B_x}=qvB_x$

And by substituting,

$F_{B_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+x axis)

- Thumb: force (+y axis)

For the field $B_y$ , the velocity (+z axis) is also perpendicular to the magnetic field (+y axis), so the force is

$F_{B_y}=qvB_y$

And by substituting,

$F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N$

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: force (-y axis)

3 0

4 years ago

A fairground ride consists of a large vertical drum that spins so

expeople1 [14]

Answer:

v = 3.84 m/s

Explanation:

In order for the riders to stay pinned against the inside of the drum the frictional force on them must be equal to the centripetal force:

$Centripetal\ Force = Frictional\ Force\\\\\frac{mv^2}{r} = \mu R = \mu W\\\\\frac{mv^2}{r} = \mu mg\\\\\frac{v^2}{r} = \mu g\\\\v = \sqrt{\mu gr}$

where,

v = minimum speed = ?

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

r = radius = 10 m

μ = coefficient of friction = 0.15

Therefore,

$v=\sqrt{(0.15)(9.81\ m/s^2)(10\ m)}$

v = 3.84 m/s

6 0

3 years ago

two billiard balls moving along the same line hit each other head-on. each has a mass of 0.220 kg; one has an initial velocity o

Tems11 [23]

Hi there!

Since the collision is elastic, we must also satisfy the following condition:

Ei = Ef, or:

KEi = KEf

Begin by writing an expression for momentum. (p = mv) Remember that one ball's direction is negative; in this instance, we can let the second ball be moving LEFT.

mv1 + mv2 = mvf1 + mvf2

0.220(1.84) + 0.220(-.530) = 0.220(vf1 + vf2)

0.2882/0.220 = vf1 + vf2

1.31 = vf1 + vf2

Now, we can express this as a conservation of energy:

1/2mv1² + 1/2mv2² = 1/2mvf1² + 1/2mvf2²

Plug in values and simplify:

0.403315 = 1/2m(vf1² + vf2²)

Simplify further:

3.6665 = vf1² + vf2²

Use the equation derived from momentum above and solve for one variable:

vf2 = 1.31 - vf1

Plug in this expression for vf2:

3.6665 = vf1² + (1.31 - vf1)²

Expand:

3.6665 = vf1² + 1.7161 - 2.62vf1 + vf1²

Simplify:

1.9504 = -2.62vf1 + 2vf1²

Solve for vf1 using a graphing calculator:

vf1 = -0.53 m/s or 1.84 m/s; we must figure out which one is correct.

Since v1 is heading to the right initially with a velocity of 1.84 m/s, we know that the ball's velocity could not have stayed the same in both magnitude and direction, so the final velocity must be -0.53 m/s.

Now, we can solve for the velocity of the other ball (initial of 0.53 m/s):

vf2 = 1.31 - (-0.53) = 1.84 m/s.

Now, you could have also made the connection that when two balls of the SAME MASS experience an ELASTIC collision, the velocities are simply "exchanged" from one to another. I just used this more "extensive" method to prove this.

7 0

3 years ago

A top is a toy that is made to spin on its pointed end by pulling on a string wrapped around the body of the top. The string has

AlladinOne [14]

Given Information:

Angular displacement = θ = 51 cm = 0.51 m

Radius = 1.8 cm = 0.018 m

Initial angular velocity = ω₁ = 0 m/s

Angular acceleration = α = 10 rad/s ²

Required Information:

Final angular velocity = ω₂ = ?

Answer:

Final angular velocity = ω₂ = 21.6 rad/s

Explanation:

We know from the equations of kinematics,

ω₂² = ω₁² + 2αθ

Where ω₁ is the initial angular velocity that is zero since the toy was initially at rest, α is angular acceleration and θ is angular displacement.

ω₂² = (0)² + 2αθ

ω₂² = 2αθ

ω₂ = √(2αθ)

We know that the relation between angular displacement and arc length is given by

s = rθ

θ = s/r

θ = 0.51/0.018

θ = 23.33 radians

finally, final angular velocity is

ω₂ = √(2αθ)

ω₂ = √(2*10*23.33)

ω₂ = 21.6 rad/s

Therefore, the top will be rotating at 21.6 rad/s when the string is completely unwound.

3 0

3 years ago