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3 years ago

Which electromagnetic waves has the highest energy?How do you know?

Physics

1 answer:

aliya0001 [1]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Gamma Rays

Explanation:

Gamma rays have the highest energies the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies. They have the highest energies because they have the highest frequencies, the higher the frequency the more energy. ( I think, maybe double check with other answers )

Good Luck :)

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A 912-kg car is being driven down a straight, level road at a constant speed of 31.5 m/s. When the driver sees a police cruiser

sergejj [24]

Answer:

786.6 N

Explanation:

mass of car, m = 912 kg

initial velocity of car, u = 31.5 m/s

final velocity of car, v = 24.6 m/ s

time, t = 8 s

Let a be the acceleration of the car

Use first equation of motion

v = u + a t

24.6 = 31.5 + a x 8

a = - 0.8625 m/s^2

Force, F = mass x acceleration

F = 912 x 0.8625

F = 786.6 N

Thus, the force on the car is 786.6 N.

8 0

3 years ago

The graph below shows the displacement of an object as a constant

SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:help

Explanation: b.3.6 j

4 0

3 years ago

If you act without reason or sound judgement, people will describe you as __________.

EastWind [94]

Answer:

irrational

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

4 years ago

During energy transformation, all energy systems: are

Tom [10]

B: Energy lose

i say this because in order to change they lose energy.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers