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3 years ago

If you act without reason or sound judgement, people will describe you as __________.

Physics

1 answer:

EastWind [94]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

irrational

Explanation:

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How many complete wave cycles are shown?

skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

2.0

Explanation:

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4 years ago

A 2.0 kg block is pulled across a horizontal surface by a 15 N force at a constant velocity.a. What is the net force acting on t

bixtya [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

the block is being pulled at a constant velocity meaning it has no acceleration. the rule is fnet=mass x acceleration so if theres no acceleration there is no force net!

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3 years ago

The coefficient of kinetic friction for a 22 kg bobsled on a track is 0.10. What force is required to push it down a 5.0 degree

frosja888 [35]

Hi there!

We must begin by converting km/h to m/s using dimensional analysis:

$\frac{62km}{1hr} * \frac{1hr}{3600sec}*\frac{1000m}{1km} = 17.22 m/s$

Now, we can use the kinematic equation below to find the required acceleration:

vf² = vi² + 2ad

We can assume the object starts from rest, so:

vf² = 2ad

(17.22)²/(2 · 75) = a

a = 1.978 m/s²

Now, we can begin looking at forces.

For an object moving down a ramp experiencing friction and an applied force, we have the forces:

Fκ = μMgcosθ = Force due to kinetic friction

Mgsinθ = Force due to gravity

A = Applied Force

We can write out the summation. Let down the incline be positive.

ΣF = A + Mgsinθ - μMgcosθ

Or:

ma = A + Mgsinθ - μMgcosθ

We can plug in the given values:

22(1.978) = A + 22(9.8sin(5)) - 0.10(22 · 9.8cos(5))

A = 46.203 N

6 0

3 years ago

Solve for v<br> when<br> d = 10 and<br> t=5

VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

asfsdfasasfsda

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Given the initial wavefunction Ψ (x, 0) = Axexp (-k x) withx> 0 andk> 0, and Ψ (x, 0) = 0 forx <0, what value must A ta

madam [21]

Answer with explanation:

The Normalization Principle states that

$\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }f(x)dx=1$

Given

$f(x)=xe^{-kx}(x>0\\\\0(x$

Thus solving the integral we get

$\int_{0 }^{+\infty }A\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1\\\\A\int_{0 }^{+\infty }\cdot xe^{-kx}dx=1$

The integral shall be solved using chain rule initially and finally we shall apply the limits as shown below

$I=\int xe^{-kx}dx\\\\x\int e^{-kx}dx-\int \frac{d(x)}{dx}\int e^{-kx}dx\\\\-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}-\int 1\cdot \frac{-e^{-kx}}{k}\\\\\therefore I=\frac{e^{-kx}}{k}-\frac{xe^{-kx}}{k}$

Applying the limits and solving for A we get

$I=\frac{1}{k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}-\frac{x}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{+\infty }\\\\I=-\frac{1}{k}\\\\\therefore A=-k$

3 0

3 years ago