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Leni [432]
3 years ago
8

Please help this is urgent. The question is attached

Mathematics
2 answers:
topjm [15]3 years ago
8 0
Yes it is a 90 degree rotation clockwise.
maks197457 [2]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Yes?

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a rotation because the share equal angle measures and the same area. For two shapes on a plane to be rotations of each other , they must be of equal area , and all their angles must be equal.

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The graph below shows a company’s profit f(x), in dollars, depending on the price of the erasers x, in dollars, being sold by th
Alex777 [14]

The x-intercept = (0, 0) and (8, 0), Rate of function is 50 and as the price of erasers increasing the company's profit increasing and when price of the eraser decreasing the price the company's profit decreasing.

<h3>What is a function?</h3>

It is defined as a special type of relationship, and they have a predefined domain and range according to the function every value in the domain is related to exactly one value in the range.

We have a graph of a function:

From the graph:

x-intercept = (0, 0) and (8, 0)

Maximum value of the graph = 270 at x = 4

Increasing in the interval x ∈ (0, 4)

Decreasing in the interval x ∈ (4, 8)

As the price of erasers increasing the company's profit increasing and when price of the eraser decreasing the price the company's profit decreasing.

Rate of function = (270-120)/(4-1) = 50

Thus, the x-intercept = (0, 0) and (8, 0), Rate of function is 50 and as the price of erasers increasing the company's profit increasing and when price of the eraser decreasing the price the company's profit decreasing.

Learn more about the function here:

brainly.com/question/5245372

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
The product of 40 and the distance to the finish line
nalin [4]

Answer:

there is no picture

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
12+(-3)-2/7j-6/7j+4<br><br> HELP ME I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIST
dlinn [17]
-8/7J +13

Here’s a picture to see how to write it

4 0
3 years ago
Find the bases for Col A and Nul​ A, and then state the dimension of these subspaces for the matrix A and an echelon form of A b
Rainbow [258]

Answer:

skip counting by 0

Step-by-step explanation:

skipcount by 0 to get to 100 for the third column.

3 0
3 years ago
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