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rjkz [21]
3 years ago
6

When velocity is positive and acceleration is negative, what happens to the object’s motion?

Physics
1 answer:
xenn [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option (D) : The object slows down.

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The change in momentum of an object is equal to the Question 4 options: Force acting on it times its velocity. impulse acting on
lesya [120]

Answer:

impulse acting on it

Explanation:

The impulse is defined as the product between the force applied to an object (F) and the time interval during which the force is applied (\Delta t):

I=F\Delta t

We can prove that this is equal to the change in momentum of the object. In fact, change in momentum is given by:

\Delta p = m \Delta v

where m is the mass and \Delta v is the change in velocity. Multiplying and dividing by \Delta t, we get

\Delta p = m \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} \Delta t

and since \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} is equal to the acceleration, a, we have

\Delta p = ma \Delta t

And since the product (ma) is equal to the force, we have

\Delta p = F \Delta t

which corresponds to the impulse.

5 0
3 years ago
Two horizontal forces,225N and 165N,are exerted on s canoe in the same direction. Find the net horizontal foce
Readme [11.4K]

Since they are in the same direction, you would add them together. Let’s also assume said direction is positive. 225 N + 165 N = 390 N

5 0
3 years ago
Electron configuration is responsible for the make up of the chemical properties of elements
allochka39001 [22]

This is True


I hope i helped

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On a caterpillars map all distances are marked in kilometers . The caterpillars map shows the distance between two milkweed plan
frutty [35]

Answer:

The distance in kilometers is 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

Explanation:

We know that the conversion of 1 millimeters is equal to 10^{-3} meter. And then the conversion of 1 meter is equal to 10^{-3} km. Then the conversion of 1 millimeter to km will be

1 mm = 10^{-3} m

1 m = 10^{-3} km

So, 1 mm = 10^{-3}×10^{-3} km = 10^{-6} km.

As here the the distance is 4012 mm, then the distance in km will be

4012 mm = 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

So the distance is 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

5 0
3 years ago
A uniform magnetic field passes through a horizontal circular wire loop at an angle 15.1° from the normal to the plane of the lo
Zepler [3.9K]

Answer:

0.5849Weber

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the magnetic flus is expressed as:

\phi = BAcos \theta

Given

The magnitude of the magnetic field B = 3.35T

Area of the loop = πr² = 3.14(0.24)² = 0.180864m²

angle of the wire loop θ = 15.1°

Substitute the given values into the formula:

\phi = 3.35(0.180864)cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944(0.9655)\\\phi = 0.5849Wb

Hence the magnetic flux Φ through the loop is 0.5849Weber

5 0
3 years ago
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