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Mumz [18]
3 years ago
13

How does a rubber rod become negatively charged through friction?

Physics
1 answer:
mojhsa [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

c. It is rubbed with another object, and electrons move onto the rod.

Explanation:

A rubber rod is negatively charged through friction when gains electrons, this occurs when electrons are transferred from another material by simple contact between them. When these two materials are rubbed, the difference in electronic affinity causes one of the materials to be positively charged and the other negatively charged.

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Interchangeably means​
ryzh [129]

Answer:

Interchangeable is something that can be used in the same manner as something else without any important differences.

or in a more simple way

something that can be exchange

For example when two sweaters look almost the same and you could easily wear either one with a particular skirt, this is an example of when the sweaters can be worn interchangeably.

3 0
3 years ago
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The first stage in the GAS model of stress is
Vladimir [108]
<span>The first stage in the Gas model of stress is alarm and mobilization. So the correct option in regards to the given question is option “d”. Hans Selye is the person that evolved this model and he has explained this model in complete details.  He has broken down his model into three stages. The first stage involves alarm and mobilization. The second stage includes resistance. The third and the final stage include the exhaustion stage. These are the stages that an organism goes through to restore back the balance when stress is exerted from outside. </span>


8 0
3 years ago
A racing car accelerates at the end of the race from a speed of 100
nevsk [136]

4/3 m/s ( approximately 1.3333... m/s)

5 0
3 years ago
Una prenda de 320gramos de ropa gira en el interior de una lavadora si dicha lavadora tiene 40 cm y gira con una frecuencia de 4
Nitella [24]

Answer:

Período del tambor: T = 0.25\,s, fuerza sobre la prenda: F \approx 80.852\,N, velocidad lineal del tambor: v \approx 10.053\,\frac{m}{s}, velocidad angular del tambor: \omega \approx 25.133\,\frac{rad}{s}.

Explanation:

La expresión tiene un error por omisión, su forma correcta queda descrita a continuación:

<em>"Una prenda de 320 gramos de ropa gira en el interior de una lavadora si dicha lavadora tiene un radio de 40 centímetros y gira con una frecuencia de 4 hertz. Halle </em><em>a)</em><em> el período, </em><em>b) </em><em>la velocidad angular, </em><em>c) </em><em>la fuerza con la que gira la prenda y </em><em>d) </em><em>la velocidad lineal de la lavadora."</em>

El tambor gira a velocidad angular constante (\omega), en radianes por segundo, lo cual significa que la prenda experimenta una aceleración centrífuga (a), en metros por segundo al cuadrado. En primer lugar, calculamos el período de rotación del tambor (T), en segundos:

T = \frac{1}{f} (1)

Donde f es la frecuencia, en hertz.

(f = 4\,hz)

T = \frac{1}{4\,hz}

T = 0.25\,s

Ahora determinamos la fuerza aplicada sobre la prenda (F), en newtons:

F = m\cdot a (2)

F = \frac{4\pi^{2}\cdot m \cdot r}{T^{2}} (2b)

Donde:

m - Masa de la prenda, en kilogramos.

r - Radio interior del tambor, en metros.

(m = 0.32\,kg, r = 0.4\,m, T = 0.25\,s)

F = \frac{4\pi^{2}\cdot (0.32\,kg)\cdot (0.4\,m)}{(0.25\,s)^{2}}

F \approx 80.852\,N

La velocidad lineal de la lavadora es:

v = \frac{2\pi\cdot r}{T} (3)

(r = 0.4\,m, T = 0.25\,s)

v = \frac{2\pi\cdot (0.4\,m)}{0.25\,s}

v \approx 10.053\,\frac{m}{s}

Y la velocidad angular del tambor de la lavadora:

\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}

(T = 0.25\,s)

\omega = \frac{2\pi}{0.25\,s}

\omega \approx 25.133\,\frac{rad}{s}

7 0
2 years ago
Can I also get help on this??
Xelga [282]

Answer:

25

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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