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ziro4ka [17]
3 years ago
11

stimate the maximum efficiency of an automobile engine that has a compression ratio of 5:1.0. Assume the engine operates accordi

ng to the Otto cycle and assume γ = 1.4.
Engineering
1 answer:
Fed [463]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Efficiency based on Otto cycle.

Effotto = 47.47%

Explanation:

Efficiency based on Otto cycle.

effotto = 1 – (V2 / V1)^γ-1

effotto = 1 – (1 / 5)^1.4 - 1

effotto = 47.47%

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Marina86 [1]
Where is the following steps??
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2 years ago
All machines have three fundamental hazards: moving parts, point of operation, and?
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

All machines have three fundamental hazards: moving parts, point of operation, and the power transmission.

Explanation:

The unit that supplies power to the machine is a critical hazard due to high energy sources being potential fatal if proper protocols are not followed. This is why lockout tagout (LOTO) measures are put in place in order to protect people while they work on equipment.

3 0
2 years ago
A soil has the following Green-Ampt parameters Effective porosity 0.400 Initial volumetric moisture content-15% Hydraulic Conduc
Rudik [331]

Answer:

The graphs are attached below

Explanation:

Ans) We know,

F(t) = K(t - to) + zΔ∅ ln[(1 + F(t)/zΔ∅]

where K = hydraulic conductivity =0.1 cm/hr

z = capillary suction =20cm

 Δ∅ = ∅ (1 - Se)

 ∅ = effective porosity , Se = initial moisture content

 Δ∅ = 0.40(1 - 0.15)

Δ∅ = 0.34

Now, F(t) = 0.1(t - to) + 20(0.34) ln[ 1 + F(t)/6.8]

F(t) = 0.1(t - to) + 6.8 ln [1+ 0.147 F(t)]

Also, infiltration rate (f),

f = K [(zΔ∅ + F)/F]

f = 0.40 [6.8 + F]/F

Condition of ponding,

Ponding time tp = K zΔ∅ i(i-k)

where, i = rainfall rate (1cm/hr)

tp = 0.40(6.8) / 0.60

tp= 4.53 hours

Now, cumulative infiltraton at ponding Fp = i tp

Fp = 1 x 4.53 or 4.53 cm

For infiltration at time less then ponding time , infiltration rate = rainfall rate

For t = 0.25 hr , f = 1cm/hr ; F = 0.25 x 1 = 0.25 cm

For t = 0.50 hr , f = 1cm/hr ; F = 0.50 cm

For t = 0.75 hr , f = 1cm/hr ; F = 0.75 cm

For t = 1 hr , f = 1cm/hr ; F = 1cm/hr

For t > tp ,

Equivalent time origin(to),

to = tp - 1/K [ Fp - z Δ∅ ln (1+ Fp/zΔ∅)

to = 4.53 - 1/0.40[ 4.53 - 6.8 ln(1 + 0.66)

to = 4.53 - 2.5 ( 4.53 - 3.44)

to = 1.82 hr

Hence,

F = 0.10( t - 1.82) + 6.8 ln[ 1+ 0.147F(t)]

Solving above equation for t by assuming F, and further solving equation for infiltration rate

Ans (a) Following is required curve :

O.S 1-5 2 time Chr)ホー Lt 2 time Chr)

Ans (c) Following is required table :

Ans (d) For time step t = 0.25 hrs

At t < tp ; i = f = 1 cm/hr

F = i x t

F = 1 x 0.25

F = 0.25 cm  

 

5 0
4 years ago
(a) A 10.0-mm-diameter Brinell hardness indenter produced an indentation 2.3 mm in diameter in a steel alloy when a load of 1000
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

(a)  We are asked to compute the Brinell hardness for the given indentation. for HB, where P= 1000 kg, d= 2.3 mm, and D= 10 mm.  

Thus, the Brinell hardness is computed as

HB=2P/\pi D{D-\sqrt{D^2-d^2}

=2*1000hg/\pi (10mm)[10mm-\sqrt{(1000^2-(2.3mm)^2} ]

(b)    This  part  of  the  problem  calls  for  us  to  determine  the  indentation diameter d which  will  yield  a  270  HB  when P=  500  kg.  

d=\sqrt{D^2-[D-\frac{2P}{(HB)\pi D} } ]^2\\=\sqrt{(10mm)^2-[10mm-\frac{2*500}{450( \pi10mm)} } ]^2

6 0
4 years ago
A method that uses low temperature heat-treating that imparts toughness without reduction in hardness is called:_______
lbvjy [14]

Answer:

"Tempering Process" seems to be the appropriate choice.

Explanation:

  • Tempering seems to be a method of heat preparation which is mostly used in completely hard materials to increase consistency, strength, durability, and also some decreasing brittleness.
  • The tempering method is used to examine good functionality as well as flexural by reducing stiffness again after the substance has indeed been quenched towards its toughest state.
5 0
3 years ago
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