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Lapatulllka [165]
3 years ago
9

how can you find the mechanical advantage of the six different simple machines? (simples mechinals are pulleys, inclined plane,

wheel and axle, lever, wedge, and screw)
Physics
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]3 years ago
7 0

Hey there!

Each machine preety much have the same type of concept. Let's take for example, a screw. What is a screw? A screw is simply a long/small little "stick" that is able to 'twurl' it's way inside a hole, and hold it's self tight, and also take it's self right back out.

Now, based on the other 5 machines, we can see that it would be very similar of the screw. There would be a in and out function, left to right function, up and down function, and a rounded function, such as a pulley. Those would be the advantages of these different types of machines.

I hope this helps you!

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a train is moving 35m/s to the east. it speeds up to 42 m/s east over the course of 40 seconds. what is the trains acceleration?
lianna [129]

Answer:

0.175 m/s²

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 35 m/s

v = 42 m/s

t = 40 s

Find: a

v = at + v₀

42 m/s = a (40 s) + 35 m/s

a = 0.175 m/s²

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A metaphysical poet is a writer whose
EastWind [94]
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OSHA is the:
KATRIN_1 [288]
C Occupational Safety and Health Administration
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2 years ago
The potential energy of a pair of hydrogen atoms separated by a large distance x is given by U(x)=−C6/x6, where C6 is a positive
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer will be "-\frac{6C_{6}}{x^{7}}". The further explanation is given below.

Explanation:

The potential energy will be,

⇒  U(x)= -\frac{C_{6}}{x^6}

The expression of force will be,

⇒  F=-\frac{dU(x)}{dx}

⇒      =-(C_{6}(-6)x^{-7})

⇒      =-\frac{6C_{6}}{x^{7}}

Force seems to be appealing because the expression has been negative. It therefore means that the force or substance is acting laterally in on itself.

6 0
4 years ago
A particle with a charge of − 5.10 nC is moving in a uniform magnetic field of B⃗ =−( 1.20 T )k^. The magnetic force on the part
marta [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q=-5.10nC

Magnetic field B= -1.2T k

And the magnetic force

F =−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j

Let the velocity be V(xi + yj + zk)

Then, the force is given as

Note i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

k×i=j. i×k=-j

F= q(v×B)

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j =

q(xi + yj + zk) × -1.2k

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.2x i×k - 1.2y j×k - 1.2z k×k)

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( 1.2xj - 1.2y i )

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.2y i + 1.2x j)

So comparing comparing coefficients

let compare x axis component

-( 3.30×10−7N )i=-1.2qy i

−3.30×10−7N = -1.2qy

y= -3.3×10^-7/-1.2q

y= -3.3×10^-7/-1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

y=-53.92m/s

Let compare y-axisaxis

7.6×10−7N j = 1.2qx j

7.6×10−7N = 1.2qx

x= 7.6×10^-7/-1.2q

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

x=-124.18m/s

a. Then, the velocity of the x component is x= -124.18m/s

b. Also, the velocity component of the y axis is =-53.92m/s

c. We will compute

V•F

V=-124.18i -53.92j

F=−( 3.30×10−7 N )i+( 7.60×10−7 N )j

Note

i.j=j.i=0. Also i.i = j.j =1

V•F is

(-124.18i-53.92j)•−(3.30×10−7N)i+(7.60×10−7 N )j =

4.1×10^-5 - 4.1×10^-5=0

V•F=0

d. Angle between V and F

V•F=|V||F|Cosx

0=|V||F|Cos

Cosx=0

x= arccos(0)

x=90°

Since the dot product is zero, from vectors , if the dot product of two vectors is zero, then the vectors are perpendicular to each other

6 0
3 years ago
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