Answer:
The answer is just 1 and 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
To understand this problem, you must think of what whole numbers actually are.
Whole numbers consist of Positive integers and Zero.
Positive integers include 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ... etc
Zero is 0
The reason 
isn't a whole number is because that fraction doesn't reduce any further and does not yield a whole number.
2 would be the correct answer ;-)))) (1 on top?)
Multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number.<span> Two fractions that are different but equivalent have, by definition, numerators and denominators that are multiples of each other. In other words, multiplying the numerator and denominator of a </span>fraction<span> by the same number will produce an equivalent fraction. Though the numbers in the new fraction will be different, the fractions will have the same value.</span><span>For instance, if we take the fraction 4/8 and multiply both the numerator and denominator by 2, we get (4×2)/(8×2) = 8/16. These two fractions are equivalent.(4×2)/(8×2) is essentially the same as 4/8 × 2/2 Remember that when multiplying two fractions, we multiply across, meaning numerator to numerator and denominator to denominator.Notice that 2/2 equals 1 when you carry out the division. Thus, it's easy to see why 4/8 and 8/16 are equivalent since multiplying 4/8 × (2/2) = 4/8 still. The same way it’s fair to say that 4/8 = 8/16.<span>Any given fraction has an infinite number of equivalent fractions. You can multiply the numerator and denominator by any whole number, no matter how large or small to obtain an equivalent fraction.</span></span>
Services.
Since GDP is an estimate of everything produced or provided in a certain amount of time.
