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cestrela7 [59]
3 years ago
5

Calculate the acceleration using the formula acceleration = (final velocity - initial velocity) / time.

Physics
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

10 km/hr/s

Explanation:

The acceleration of an object is given by

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

where

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

t is the time

For the car in this problem:

u = 0

v=60 km/h

t = 6 s

Substituting in the equation,

a=\frac{60 km/h-0}{6s}=10 km/h/s

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A ball is launched vertically with an initial speed of y˙0= 50 m/s, and its acceleration is governed by y¨=-g-cDy˙2, where the a
stira [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

acceleration is given by

a=-g-c_Dv^2

where \ddot{y}=a

\dot{y}=v

Also acceleration is given by

a=v\frac{\mathrm{d} v}{\mathrm{d} s}

ds=\frac{v}{a}dv

\int ds=\int \frac{v}{-g-0.001v^2}dv

\Rightarrow Let -g-0.001v^2=t

-0.001\times 2vdv=dt

vdv=-\frac{dt}{0.002}

at\ v_0=50\ m/s,\ t=-g-0.001(50)^2

t=-g-2.5

at v=0,\ t=-g

\int_{0}^{s}ds=\int_{-g}^{-g-2.5}\frac{-dt}{0.002t}

\int_{0}^{s}ds=\int^{-g}_{-g-2.5}\frac{dt}{0.002t}

s=\frac{1}{0.002}lnt|_{-g}^{-g-2.5}

s=\frac{1}{0.002}\ln (\frac{g+2.5}{g})

s=113.608\ m

when air drag is neglected maximum height reached is

h=\frac{v_0^2}{2g}

h=\frac{50^2}{2\times 9.8}

h=127.55\ m

3 0
3 years ago
Two particles oscillate in simple harmonic motion along a common straight-line segment of length 1.0 m. Each particle has a peri
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

a) the particles are <em>0.217 m </em>apart

b) <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

Explanation:

a) The amplitude of the oscillations is A/2 and the period of each particle is

T = 1.5 s however, they differ by a phase of π/6 rad. Let the phase of the first particle be zero so that the phase of the second particle is π/6. So we can write the coordinates of each of the particles as,

x₁ = A/2 cos(ωt)

x₂ = A/2 cos(ωt + π/6)

we can write the angular frequency ω, as

ω = 2π / T

so,

x₁ = A/2 cos(2π / T)

x₂ = A/2 cos(2π / T + π/6)

Thus, the coordinates of the particles at t = 0.45 s are,

x₁ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5)) = -0.155 A

x₂ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5) + π/6) = -0.372 A

Their separation at that time is, therefore,

Δx = x₁ - x₂

    = -0.155 A + 0.372 A

    = 0.217 A

since A = 1 m

Thus,

<em>Δx  = 0.217 m</em>

<em></em>

<em></em>

b) In order to find their directions, we must take the derivatives at t = 0.45 s.

Therefore,

v₁ = dx₁ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin(2πt / T)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin(2π(0.45) / 1.5)

   = -1.99

and,

v₂ = dx₂ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin((2πt / T) + π/6)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin((2π(0.45) / 1.5) + π/6)

   = -1.40

Since both v₁ and v₂ are negative, this shows that <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

6 0
3 years ago
What happens after u thruster is fired to push a spacecraft
erica [24]

I dont known you do it



5 0
3 years ago
Describe ehat happens at the molecular level during meilting
Marta_Voda [28]
The molecules of a solid vibrate faster so that they start spreading out to become a liquid. This energy makes them vibrate faster so the bonds between molecules can't interact all that well anymore creating more distance. The stronger the bonds between the molecules the higher the energy (temperature) has to be to get them away from each other. Hope I didn't confuse you too much!
3 0
3 years ago
MY LAST ONE&lt;,Brainliest for best answer!
grigory [225]
_Award brainliest if helped!
Mechanical Advantage = Force by Hammer / Force by Nail = 160/40 = 4
8 0
3 years ago
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