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LuckyWell [14K]
3 years ago
6

Why does the value of g vary from place to place?

Physics
1 answer:
NemiM [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The variation in apparent gravitational acceleration (g) at different locations on Earth is caused by two things (as you implied). ... The distance between the centers of mass of two objects affects the gravitational force between them, so the force of gravity on an object is smaller at the equator compared to the poles.

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What was the speed of a space shuttle that orbited Earth at an altitude of 1482 km?
gregori [183]

Answer:

v = 7121.3 m/s

Explanation:

As we know that the centripetal force for the space shuttle is due to gravitational force of earth due to which it will rotate in circular path with constant speed

so here we will have

\frac{mv^2}{r} = \frac{GMm}{r^2}

here we know that

r = orbital radius = 6370 km + 1482 km

r = 7.852 \times 10^6 m

also we know that

M = 5.97 \times 10^{24} kg

now we will have

v^2 = \frac{(6.67 \times 10^{-11})(5.97 \times 10^{24})}{7.852 \times 10^6}

v^2 = 5.07 \times 10^7

v = 7121.3 m/s

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A radio station's channel, such as 100.7 fm or 92.3 fm, is actually its frequency in megahertz (mhz), where 1mhz=106hz and 1hz=1
lapo4ka [179]
<span>In order to determine the wavelength, we use the wave equation:

speed = frequency * wavelength

speed of light c = 3 x 10</span>⁸<span> m/s

Frequency f = 104.1 MHz = 1.041 x 10</span>⁸ Hz<span>

c = f</span>λ
λ = c / f

λ = 3 x 10⁸ / 1.041 x 10⁸
λ = 2.88 meters

The wavelength of the waves is 2.88 meters.
5 0
3 years ago
A kid pulls on a rope with 20 newtons of force. The block and tackle system pulls up a 160 newton box. What is the mechanical ad
Minchanka [31]
Answer:
The mechanical advantage of the system is 8

Explanation:
the mechanical advantage measures how much the system multiplies the input force to get the output.

In the given:
The input force (effort) is 20 Newton
The output force (load) is 160 Newton

This means that the mechanical advantage is:
mechanical advantage = load / effort = 160 / 20 = 8

Note that the mechanical advantage is unit-less (has no unit) since it is a ratio between two forces.

Hope this helps :)
3 0
3 years ago
Two long straight wires are parallel and carry current in the same direction. The currents are 8.0 and 12 A and the wires are se
Bess [88]

A magnetic field is a mathematical description of the magnetic influence of electric currents and magnetic materials. The magnetic field at any point is specified by two values, the direction and the magnitude; such that it is a vector field. Mathematically it is described as,

B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d}

Here

\mu_0=  Permeability at free space constant

I_{1,2}= Current at each object

d = Distance to the center point of the two object

Two magnetic field due to the current in the same directions then is,

B = \frac{\mu_0 I_1}{2\pi d_1}+\frac{\mu_0 I_2}{2\pi d_2}

Replacing,

B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})(8)}{2\pi (2*10^{-3})}+\frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})(12)}{2\pi (2*10^{-3})}

B = 8*10^{-4} +12*10^{-4}

B = 20*10^{-4}T

Therefore the correct answer is E.

8 0
3 years ago
The Indianapolis speedway consists of a 2.5 mile track having four turns, each 0.25 mile long and banked at 9 12'
blsea [12.9K]

Answer: Your question is missing below is the question

Question : What is the no-friction needed speed (in m/s ) for these turns?

answer:

20.1 m/s

Explanation:

2.5 mile track

number of turns = 4

length of each turn = 0.25 mile

banked at 9 12'

<u>Determine the no-friction needed speed </u>

First step : calculate the value of R

2πR / 4 =  πR / 2

note : πR / 2 = 0.25 mile

∴ R = ( 0.25 * 2 ) / π

      = 0.159 mile ≈ 256 m

Finally no-friction needed speed

tan θ = v^2 / gR

∴ v^2 = gR * tan θ

 v = √9.81 * 256 * tan(9.2°)  = 20.1 m/s

8 0
3 years ago
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