Answer:
laminar flow
Explanation:
In fluid dynamics, laminar flow is characterized by fluid particles following smooth paths in layers, with each layer moving smoothly past the adjacent layers with little or no mixing.
Assumptions:
- Steady state.
- Air as working fluid.
- Ideal gas.
- Reversible process.
- Ideal Otto Cycle.
Explanation:
Otto cycle is a thermodynamic cycle widely used in automobile engines, in which an amount of gas (air) experiences changes of pressure, temperature, volume, addition of heat, and removal of heat. The cycle is composed by (following the P-V diagram):
- Intake <em>0-1</em>: the mass of working fluid is drawn into the piston at a constant pressure.
- Adiabatic compression <em>1-2</em>: the mass of working fluid is compressed isentropically from State 1 to State 2 through compression ratio (r).

- Ignition 2-3: the volume remains constant while heat is added to the mass of gas.
- Expansion 3-4: the working fluid does work on the piston due to the high pressure within it, thus the working fluid reaches the maximum volume through the compression ratio.

- Heat Rejection 4-1: heat is removed from the working fluid as the pressure drops instantaneously.
- Exhaust 1-0: the working fluid is vented to the atmosphere.
If the system produces enough work, the automobile and its occupants will propel. On the other hand, the efficiency of the Otto Cycle is defined as follows:

where:

Ideal air is the working fluid, as stated before, for which its specific heat ratio can be considered constant.

Answer:
See image attached.
Answer:
a) 84.034°C
b) 92.56°C
c) ≈ 88 watts
Explanation:
Thickness of aluminum alloy fin = 12 mm
width = 10 mm
length = 50 mm
Ambient air temperature = 22°C
Temperature of aluminum alloy is maintained at 120°C
<u>a) Determine temperature at end of fin</u>
m = √ hp/Ka
= √( 140*2 ) / ( 12 * 10^-3 * 55 )
= √ 280 / 0.66 = 20.60
Attached below is the remaining answers
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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Answer:
$7,778.35
Explanation:
At year 3, the final payment of the remaining balance is equal to the present worth P of the last three payments.
First, calculate the uniform payments A:
A = 12000(A/P, 4%, 5)
= 12000(0.2246) = 2695.2 (from the calculator)
Then take the last three payments as its own cash flow.
To calculate the new P:
P = 2695.2 + 2695.2(P/A, 4%, 2) = 2695.2 + 2695.2(1.886) = 7778.35
Therefore, the final payment is $7,778.35