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3 years ago

Distinguish

Physics

1 answer:

yaroslaw [1]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Velocity and speed both are continuously increasing.

Acceleration is constant.

Explanation:

Speed is defined as length of path covered by a body per unit time. Speed is a scalar quantity that consist of magnitude only and not direction.

Velocity is defined as the displacement per unit times. Displacement is the shortest distance between the two points. It is a vector quantity and hence has a direction in the direction of displacement along with its own magnitude.

Both velocity and speed have same unit of measure which is meter per second in S.I. During <em>free fall</em> in the absence of any air resistance the velocity and speed both will be having a vertical downward direction with continuously increasing magnitude. Tough we are not concerned about the direction when discussing about speed but here both are equal since the motion is linear.

Acceleration is the rate of change in velocity of a body which is a vector quantity. For speed we are concerned about instantaneous acceleration since for a short period of time it may have a specific direction.

During free fall the acceleration is of a body is equal to the acceleration due to gravity and constant when the height of fall is much lesser than the radius of the earth.

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A sailboat moves north for a distance of 15.00 km when blown by a wind from the exact southeast with a force of 3.00 x 10^-4 N.

Zolol [24]

These are actually 4 different exercises:

ex 1) The sailboat moves north, while the wind moves from southeast. This means the angle between the direction of the boat and the wind is $45^{\circ}$ .

Calling F the force of the wind, and $d=15~km=15000~m$ the distance covered by the boat, the work done by the wind is:
$W=Fdcos{\theta}=3\cdot10^{-4}~N \cdot 15000~m\cdot cos 45^{\circ}=3.18~J$

The total time of the motion is $t=1~h=3600~s$ and therefore the power of the wind is
$P= \frac{W}{t} = \frac{3.18~J}{3600~s}=8.8\cdot10^{-4}~W$

ex 2) First of all, let's calculate the length of the ramp. Given the two sizes 2.00 m and 6.00 m, we have
$d= \sqrt{(2~m)^2+(6~m)^2}= 6.32~m$

The mechanical advantage (MA) of the ramp is the ratio between the output load (W) and the input force (F). The output load is the weight of the load, mg, therefore:
$MA= \frac{W}{F}= \frac{mg}{F}= \frac{195~Kg\cdot 9.81~m/s^2}{750~N}=2.55$

Finally, the efficiency $\epsilon$ of the ramp is the ratio between the output energy and the work done. The output energy is simply the potential energy (Ep) of the load, which is mgh, where h is the height of the ramp. The work done W is the product between the input force, F, and the displacement of the load, which is the length of the ramp: Fd. Therefore:
$\epsilon = \frac{E_p}{W}= \frac{mgh}{Fd}= \frac{195~Kg \cdot 9.81~m/s^2\cdot 2~m}{750~N\cdot6.32~m}=0.81$

ex 3) the graph is missing

ex 4) We know that the power is the ratio between the work done W and the time t:
$P= \frac{W}{t}$
But we can rewrite the work as
$W=Fdcos\theta$
where F is the force applied, d the displacement of rock and $\theta=60^{\circ]$ is the angle between the direction of the force and the displacement (3 m).
Therefore we can rewrite the power as
$P= \frac{W}{t} = \frac{F d cos\theta}{t}=F v cos\theta$
where $v=d/t=5~m/s$ is the velocity, Using the data of the exercise, we can then find the force, F:
$F= \frac{P}{v cos\theta} = \frac{250~W}{5~m/s \cdot cos 60^{\circ}}=100~N$

and now we can also calculate the work, which is
$W=Fdcos 60^{\circ}=100~N\cdot 3~m \cos60^{\circ}=150~J$

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SIZIF [17.4K]

The correct answer is the Sun.i hope that helped! if you have any questions or concerns about the answer i gave you please let me know!!

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