The frictional force is given by F = μmg
<span>where μ is the coeficient of friction. </span>
<span>Work done by frictional force = Fd = μmgd </span>
<span>Kinetic energy "lost" = 1/2 mv² </span>
<span>Fd = μmgd = 1/2 mv² </span>
<span>The m's cancel μgd = v² / 2 </span>
<span>d = v² / 2μg </span>
<span>d = 8² / 2(0.41)(9.8) </span>
<span>d = 32 / (0.41)(9.8) </span>
<span>d = 7.96 </span>
<span>Player slides 8 m . </span>
<span>Note. In your other example μ = 0.46 and v = 4 m/s </span>
<span>d = v² / 2μg </span>
<span>= 4² / 2(0.46)(9.8) </span>
<span>= 8 / (0.46)(9.8) </span>
<span>= 1.77 or 1.8 m.
</span>
Hope i Helped :D
The answer should be the number, or amount, of cycles that occur in a given time. Frequency is basically Hertz. Frequency is the number of waves that pass through a certain point every second. I hope that I was able to answer your question.
Peace out!
- Hershy103
Answer:
the magnitude of the velocity of one particle relative to the other is 0.9988c
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
Velocities of the two particles = 0.9520c
Using Lorentz transformation
Let relative velocity be W, so
v
= ( u + v ) / ( 1 + ( uv / c²) )
since each particle travels with the same speed,
u = v
so
v = ( u + u ) / ( 1 + ( u×u / c²) )
v = 2(0.9520c) / ( 1 + ( 0.9520c )² / c²) )
we substitute
v = 1.904c / ( 1 + ( (0.906304 × c² ) / c²) )
v = 1.904c / ( 1 + 0.906304 )
v = 1.904c / 1.906304
v = 0.9988c
Therefore, the magnitude of the velocity of one particle relative to the other is 0.9988c
