To solve this problem, we use the equation:
<span>d = (v^2 - v0^2) /
2a</span>
where,
d = distance of collapse
v0 = initial velocity = 101 km / h = 28.06 m / s
v = final velocity = 0
a = acceleration = - 300 m / s^2
d = (-28.06 m / s)^2 / (2 * - 300 m / s^2)
<span>d = 1.31 m</span>
Explanation:
F = 20N m= m1 a=10m/s²
m=m2 a=5m/s²
F = ma
<u>for the first one</u><u>:</u><u> </u>
f=m1 × a
20 = m1 ×10
20=10m1
m1=20/10
m1=2
<u>for</u><u> </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>second</u><u> </u><u>one</u><u> </u><u>:</u>
f=m2×a
20=m2×5
m2= 20/5
m2= 4
since F=ma
F=(m1+m2) ×a
F =(4+2)×a
F =6×a
F=20(from the question above )
20=6×a
a=20/6
a=3.33
Answer:
The angular acceleration of the pencil<em> α = 17 rad·s⁻²</em>
Explanation:
Using Newton's second angular law or torque to find angular acceleration, we get the following expressions:
τ = I α (1)
W r = I α (2)
The weight is that the pencil has is,
sin 10 = r / (L/2)
r = L/2(sin(10))
The shape of the pencil can be approximated to be a cylinder that rotates on one end and therefore its moment of inertia will be:
I = 1/3 M L²
Thus,
mg(L / 2)sin(10) = (1/3 m L²)(α)
α(f) = 3/2(g) / Lsin(10)
α = 3/2(9.8) / 0.150sin(10)
<em> α = 17 rad·s⁻²</em>
Therefore, the angular acceleration of the pencil<em> </em>is<em> 17 rad·s⁻²</em>
The answer is A
Explanation:
Vacuuming doesn’t involve a lot of physical movements.
