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Butoxors [25]
3 years ago
15

There are four coils of wire being used as electromagnets. They all have the same size and are made up of the same material but

have a different number of loops. Which coil will produce a magnetic field with the maximum strength when the same amount of current passes through all coils?
Physics
1 answer:
bonufazy [111]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The coil with the maximum number of loops will produce the magnetic field with the maximum strength.

Explanation:

The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying coil at a point on the axis which is passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is given by

\rm B=\dfrac{\mu_o N I }{2}\ \dfrac{R^2}{(r^2+R^2)^{3/2}}.

<em>where</em>,

  • \mu_o = magnetic permeability of the free space.
  • N = number of loops of the coil.
  • I = current flowing through the coil.
  • R = radius of the coil.
  • r = distance of the point where the magnetic field is to be found from the center of the coil.

Now, it is given that all the four coils have the same size, means same radius R, same material, means same permeability for all the coils, and the same amount of current is passing through all the coils, means same current I.  

The magnetic field of all the four coils is differing only due to the number of loops N.

Thus, the coil with the maximum number of loops N will produce the magnetic field with the maximum strength.

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6 0
3 years ago
What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 89 cm from a 27 μC charge, in units of N/C?
GuDViN [60]

Answer:

306500 N/C

Explanation:

The magnitude of an electric field around a single charge is calculated with this equation:

E(r) = \frac{1}{4 \pi *\epsilon 0} \frac{q}{r^2}

With ε0 = 8.85*10^-12 C^2/(N*m^2)

Then:

E(0.89) = \frac{1}{4 \pi *8.85*10^-12} \frac{27*10^-6}{0.89^2}

E(0.89) = 306500 N/C

3 0
3 years ago
Determine the angle of an incline that would yield a constant velocity, given the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.10.
azamat

Answer:

\theta=5.71^{o}

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we mus start by drawing a free body diagram of the given situation (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can now do a sum of forces in the x and y direction. Let's start with the y-direction:

\sum F_{y}=0

-W_{y}+N=0

N=W_{y}

so:

N=mgcos(\theta)

now we can go ahead and do a sum of forces in the x-direction:

\sum F_{x}=0

the sum of forces in x is 0 because it's moving at a constant speed.

-f+W_{x}=0

-\mu_{k}N+mg sen(\theta)=0

-\mu_{k}mg cos(\theta)+mg sen(\theta)=0

so now we solve for theta. We can start by factoring mg so we get:

mg(-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta))=0

we can divide both sides into mg so we get:

-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta)=0

this tells us that the problem is independent of the mass of the object.

\mu_{k} cos(\theta)=sen(\theta)

we now divide both sides of the equation into cos(\theta) so we get:

\mu_{k}=\frac{sen(\theta)}{cos(\theta)}

\mu_{k}=tan(\theta)

so we now take the inverse function of tan to get:

\theta=tan^{-1}(\mu_{k})

so now we can find our angle:

\theta=tan^{-1}(0.10)

so

\theta=5.71^{o}

8 0
3 years ago
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