Answer:
The next resonance will be 150 Hz.
Explanation:
The frequency of the sound produced by a tube, both open and closed, is directly proportional to the speed of propagation. Hence, to produce the different harmonics of a tube, the wave propagation speed must be increased.
The frequency of the sound produced by a tube, both open and closed, is inversely proportional to the length of the tube. The greater the length of the tube, the frequency is lower.
Frecuency of the standing sound wave modes in a open-closed tube is:
fₙ=n*f₁ where m is an integer and f₁ is the first frecuency (30 Hz)
The next resonance is at 90 Hz. This means that it occurs when n = 3:
f₃=3*30 Hz= 90 Hz
This means that the next resonance occurs when n = 5:
f₅=5*30 Hz= 150 Hz
<u><em>The next resonance will be 150 Hz.</em></u>
<u><em></em></u>
Answer:
0.628 radians per second
Explanation:
Angular velocity
= 2pi/T
= 2(3.14159)/10
= 0.628 radians per second
Answer:
В. An object with mechanical energy is always able to perform work.
Explanation:
Energy can be defined as the ability (capacity) to do work. The two (2) main types of energy are;
a. Gravitational potential energy (GPE): it is an energy possessed by an object or body due to its position above the earth.
b. Kinetic energy (KE): it is an energy possessed by an object or body due to its motion.
Furthermore, the mechanical energy of a physical object or body is the sum of the potential energy and kinetic energy possessed by the object or body and it is measured in Joules.
Mathematically, it is given by the formula;
Mechanical energy = G.P.E + K.E
Hence, the true statement is that an object with mechanical energy is always able to perform work.
I would say B. Hope this helps Plz give a thx
Answer:
Hello some part of your question is missing below is the missing part
2. What is the force on the charged particle if it is now located at the 0V potential difference line? (mN) (hint: The electric field can be obtained as above using the 0V and -10V equipotential lines.)
answer :
1) 0.8 mN
2) 0.8 mN
Explanation:
Given data:
1) Calculate the force on the charged particle
q = 80 μC , Va = 30v , Vb = 40v, ∝ = 1 m
E = ( Δv ) / ∝
= ( Vb - Va ) / ∝
F = qE
= 80 μC * ( 40 - 30 ) / 1 m
= 800 μC
F = 0.8 mN
<u>2) Calculate the force on the charged particle when it is located at 0V</u>
Va = -10V , Vb = 0V, q = 80 μC, ∝ = 1 m
F = qE
where E = ( 0 - ( -10 ) / 1
F = 80 μC * ( 0 - ( -10 ) / 1
= 800 μC = 0.8 mN