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irina1246 [14]
2 years ago
8

When preparing the statement of cash flows using the indirect​ method, which statement is​ INCORRECT? A. Losses on the sale of l

ongminusterm assets are subtracted from net income. B. Increases in current liabilities are added to net income. C. Depreciation expense is added to net income. D. Gains on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income.
Business
1 answer:
ExtremeBDS [4]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is Option A.

Explanation:

A. Losses on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - This is incorrect because on losses on sale of an asset are usually added to the net income to avoid double-counting of income. Under the investing section of the cash flows, the proceed received on disposal is recorded there as inflow, if the losses realized on the disposal are subtracted, there would be a double-counting because the losses had already reduced the net income before.

B. Increases in current liabilities are added to net income - This is an inflow of cash, so it is usually added back.

C. Depreciation expense is added to net income - The explanation under Option A above applies but only that depreciation is a non-cash item, which already reduced the net income and it has to be added back to reinstate the net income.

D. Gains on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - Explanation under Option A applies.

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What is the percentage loss on the funds she invested if the interest payment is included in the calculation
adoni [48]

Answer with complete Question:

Barbara buys 130 shares of DEM at $33.00 a share and 190 shares of GOP at $37.00 a share. She buys on margin and the broker charges interest of 7 percent on the loan.

a. If the margin requirement is 42 percent, what is the maximum amount she can borrow? Round your answer to the nearest cent.

$ 6,565.60

(Which is equal to 58(100 - 42)% of $11,320.)

b. If she buys the stocks using the borrowed money and holds the securities for a year, how much interest must she pay? Round your answer to the nearest cent.

$  459.59 ($6,565.60 x 7%)

If after a year she sells DEM for $22.00 a share and GOP for $30.00 a share, how much did she lose on her investment? Use a minus sign to enter the amount as a negative value. Round your answer to the nearest cent.

$  2,760

What is the percentage loss on the funds she invested if the interest payment is included in the calculation? Use a minus sign to enter the amount as a negative value. Round your answer to two decimal places.

28.44 %

Explanation:

a. Data and Calculations:

DEM, 130 shares at $33.00 a share = $4,290

GOP, 190 shares at $37.00 a share =   7,030

Total value of investments = $11,320

Margin requirement = 42% of $11.320 = $4,754.40

Barbara can borrow $6,565.60 ($11,320 - $4,754.40)

1. Interest on borrowed fund (margin):

$6,565.60 x 7% = $459.59

2. Loss from Sale of:

DEM, 130 shares at $22.00 a share = $1,430 ($11 x 130)

GOP, 190 shares at $30.00 a share = $1,330 ($7 x 190)

Total loss from investments = $2,760

3. Percentage Loss, with interest included:

Interest on borrowed fund = $6,565.60 x 7% = $459.59

Total loss from investments =       $2,760.00

Total loss  = $3,219.59

Total value of investments = $11,320

Percentage Loss = $3,219.59/$11,320 * 100 = 28.44%

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On October 15, 2019, the Department of Labor announced that the Producer Price Index (PPI) experienced an unexpected 1.1 percent
Kruka [31]

Answer:

A. We should expect higher interest rates and lower stock prices.

Explanation:

Producer price index refers to the price that producers recieve for their products. When there is an increase in PPI it means producers are receiving more revenue.

Increased revenue will result in more money in circulation. To regulate the excess money the monetary authorities will increase interest rate to reduce borrowing and by extension money in the economy.

Because there is now a need to get more funds by the companies, they will lower share prices to make them attractive to prospective investors.

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Answer:

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For​ 2018, Rest-Well Bedding uses​ machine-hours as the only overhead​ cost-allocation base. The direct cost rate is​ $6.00 per
maria [59]

Answer:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are​ $275,000 and an estimated​ 40,000 machine hours.

To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 275,000/40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

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Cash outflows for McKinney Publishing in 2020 included:________. $347,000 in salaries to authors. $180,000 in fees to contracted
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Answer: $527,000

Explanation:

Salaries to authors = $347,000

Fees to contracted editors = $180,000

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McKinney Enterprises expense will be:

= Salaries to authors + Fees to contracted editors

= $347,000 + $180,000

= $527,000

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