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Dmitry [639]
3 years ago
5

Water vapor at 100 psi, 500 F and a velocity of 100 ft./sec enters a nozzle operating at steady sate and expands adiabatically t

o the exit, where the pressure is 40 psia. If the isentropic nozzle efficiency is 95%, determine for the nozzle,
(a) the exit velocity of the steam in ft./sec, and

(b) the amount of entropy produced in BTU/ lbm R.
Engineering
1 answer:
almond37 [142]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a)exit velocity of the steam, V2 = 2016.8 ft/s

b) the amount of entropy produced is 0.006 Btu/Ibm.R

Explanation:

Given:

P1 = 100 psi

V1 = 100 ft./sec

T1 = 500f

P2 = 40 psi

n = 95% = 0.95

a) for nozzle:

Let's apply steady gas equation.

h_1 + \frac{(v_1) ^2}{2} = h_2 + \frac{(v_2)^2}{2}

h1 and h2 = inlet and exit enthalpy respectively.

At T1 = 500f and P1 = 100 psi,

h1 = 1278.8 Btu/Ibm

s1 = 1.708 Btu/Ibm.R

At P2 = 40psi and s1 = 1.708 Btu/Ibm.R

1193.5 Btu/Ibm

Let's find the actual h2 using the formula :

n = \frac{h_1 - h_2*}{h_1 - h_2}

n = \frac{1278.8 - h_2*}{1278.8 - 1193.5}

solving for h2, we have

h_2 = 1197.77 Btu/Ibm

Take Btu/Ibm = 25037 ft²/s²

Using the first equation, exit velocity of the steam =

(1278.8 * 25037) + \frac{(100)^2}{2}= (1197.77*25037)+ \frac{(V_2)^2}{2}

Solving for V2, we have

V2 = 2016.8 ft/s

b) The amount of entropy produced in BTU/ lbm R will be calculated using :

Δs = s2 - s1

Where s1 = 1.708 Btu/Ibm.R

At h2 = 1197.77 Btu/Ibm and P2 =40 psi,

S2 = 1.714 Btu/Ibm.R

Therefore, amount of entropy produced will be:

Δs = 1.714Btu/Ibm.R - 1.708Btu/Ibm.R

= 0.006 Btu/Ibm.R

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The electric motor exerts a torque of 800 N·m on the steel shaft ABCD when it is rotating at a constant speed. Design specificat
kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

d= 4.079m ≈ 4.1m

Explanation:

calculate the shaft diameter from the torque,    \frac{τ}{r} = \frac{T}{J} = \frac{C . ∅}{l}

Where, τ = Torsional stress induced at the outer surface of the shaft (Maximum Shear stress).

r = Radius of the shaft.

T = Twisting Moment or Torque.

J = Polar moment of inertia.

C = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material.

l = Length of the shaft.

θ = Angle of twist in radians on a length.  

Maximum Torque, ζ= τ ×  \frac{ π}{16} × d³

τ= 60 MPa

ζ= 800 N·m

800 = 60 ×  \frac{ π}{16} × d³

800= 11.78 ×  d³

d³= 800 ÷ 11.78

d³= 67.9

d= \sqrt[3]{} 67.9

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2 years ago
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An aircraft component is fabricated from an aluminum alloy that has a plane strain fracture toughness of 40MPa. It has been dete
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Answer:

Yes, fracture will occur

Explanation:

Half length of internal crack will be 4mm/2=2mm=0.002m

To find the dimensionless parameter, we use critical stress crack propagation equation

\sigma_c=\frac {K}{Y \sqrt {a\pi}} and making Y the subject

Y=\frac {K}{\sigma_c \sqrt {a\pi}}

Where Y is the dimensionless parameter, a is half length of crack, K is plane strain fracture toughness, \sigma_c  is critical stress required for initiating crack propagation. Substituting the figures given in question we obtain

Y=\frac {K}{\sigma_c \sqrt {a\pi}}= \frac {40}{300\sqrt {(0.002*\pi)}}=1.682

When the maximum internal crack length is 6mm, half the length of internal crack is 6mm/2=3mm=0.003m

\sigma_c=\frac {K}{Y \sqrt {a\pi}}  and making K the subject

K=\sigma_c Y \sqrt {a\pi}  and substituting 260 MPa for \sigma_c  while a is taken as 0.003m and Y is already known

K=260*1.682*\sqrt {0.003*\pi}=42.455 Mpa

Therefore, fracture toughness at critical stress when maximum internal crack is 6mm is 42.455 Mpa and since it’s greater than 40 Mpa, fracture occurs to the material

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Answer:

10.8\ \text{lb/ft^2}

101.96\ \text{lb/ft}^2

Explanation:

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v_2=0

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h_1=h_2

From Bernoulli's law we have

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The maximum pressure on the girl's hand is 10.8\ \text{lb/ft^2}

Now v_1 = 200 mph = 200\times \dfrac{5280}{3600}=293.33\ \text{ft/s}

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The maximum pressure on the girl's hand is 101.96\ \text{lb/ft}^2

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2 years ago
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