When you first pull back on the pendulum, and when you pull it back really high the Potential Energy is high and the Kinetic Energy is low, But when up let go, and it gets right around the middle, that's when the Potential energy transfers to Kinetic, at that point the kinetic Energy is high and the potential Energy is low. But when it comes back up at the end. The same thing will happen, the Potential Energy is high, and the Kinetic Energy is low. Through all of that the Mechanical Energy stays the same.
I hope this helps. :)
Brainliest?
Answer:

Explanation:
<u>LC Circuit</u>
It's a special circuit made of three basic elements: The AC source, a capacitor, and an inductor. The charge, current, and voltage are oscillating when there is an interaction between the electric and magnetic fields of the elements. The following variables will be used for the formulas:
= charge of the capacitor in any time 
= initial charge of the capacitor
=angular frequency of the circuit
= current through the circuit in any time 
The charge in an LC circuit is given by

The current is the derivative of the charge

We are given

It means that
![q(t_1) = q_0 \, cos (\omega t_1 )=q_1\ .......[eq 1]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=q%28t_1%29%20%3D%20q_0%20%5C%2C%20cos%20%28%5Comega%20t_1%20%29%3Dq_1%5C%20.......%5Beq%201%5D)
![i(t_1) = - \omega q_0 \, sin(\omega t_1)=i_1.........[eq 2]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=i%28t_1%29%20%3D%20-%20%5Comega%20q_0%20%5C%2C%20sin%28%5Comega%20t_1%29%3Di_1.........%5Beq%202%5D)
From eq 1:

From eq 2:

Squaring and adding the last two equations, and knowing that


Operating

Solving for 

Now we know the value of
, we repeat the procedure of eq 1 and eq 2, but now at the second time
, and solve for 

Solving for 

Now we replace the given values. We'll assume that the placeholder is a pi for the frequency, i.e.




Finally

