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Sunny_sXe [5.5K]
3 years ago
6

SPEAR is a storage ring at the Stanford Linear Accelerator which has a circulating beam of electrons that are moving at nearly t

he speed of light (2.998 108 m/s). If a similar ring is about 80.0 m in diameter and has a 0.59 A beam, how many electrons are in the beam
Physics
1 answer:
prohojiy [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

n = 3.1x10¹²

Explanation:

To find the number of electrons we need to find first the charge (q):

I = \frac{q}{\Delta t} \rightarrow q = I*\Delta t    (1)

<u>Where</u>:

I: is the electric current = 0.59 A

t: is the time

The time t is equal to:

v = \frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t} \rightarrow \Delta t = \frac{\Delta x}{v}   (2)

<u>Where</u>:

x: is the displacement

v: is the average speed = 2.998x10⁸ m/s

The displacement is equal to the perimeter of the circumference:

\Delta x = 2\pi*r = \pi*d     (3)

<u>Where</u> <em>d</em> is the diameter = 80.0 m

By entering equations (2) and (3) into (1) we have:

q = I*\Delta t = I*\frac{\Delta x}{v} = \frac{I\pi d}{v} = \frac{0.59 A*\pi*80.0 m}{2.99 \cdot 10^{8} m/s} = 4.96 \cdot 10^{-7} C      

Now, the number of electrons (n) is given by:

n = \frac{q}{e}

<u>Where</u> <em>e</em> is the electron's charge = 1.6x10⁻¹⁹ C  

n = \frac{q}{e} = \frac{4.96 \cdot 10^{-7} C}{1.6 \cdot 10^{-19} C} = 3.1 \cdot 10^{12}

Therefore, the number of electrons in the beam is 3.1x10¹².

I hope it helps you!

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An electron moving in the direction of the +x-axis enters a magnetic field. If the electron experiences a magnetic deflection in
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Answer:

<em>-z axis</em>

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Consider three scenarios in which a particular box moves downward under the pull of gravity :
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

1. True  WA > WB > WC

Explanation:

In this exercise they give work for several different configurations and ask that we show the relationship between them, the best way to do this is to calculate each work separately.

A) Work is the product of force by distance and the cosine of the angle between them

    WA = W h cos 0

   WA = mg h

B) On a ramp without rubbing

     Sin30 = h / L

     L = h / sin 30

     WB = F d cos θ  

     WB = F L cos 30

     WB = mf (h / sin30) cos 30

     WB = mg h ctan 30

C) Ramp with rubbing

    W sin 30 - fr = ma

   N- Wcos30 = 0

   W sin 30 - μ W cos 30 = ma

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   WC = mg (sin30 - μ cos30) h / sin30

   Wc = mg (1 - μ ctan30) h

When we review the affirmation it is the work where there is rubbing is the smallest and the work where it comes in free fall at the maximum

Let's review the claims

1. True The work of gravity is the greatest and the work where there is friction is the least

2 False. The job where there is friction is the least

3 False work with rubbing is the least

4 False work with rubbing is the least

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A 26 foot ladder is lowered down a vertical wall at a rate of 3 feet per minute. The base of the ladder is sliding away from the
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Answer:

(i) 7.2 feet per minute.

(ii) No, the rate would be different.

(iii) The rate would be always positive.

(iv) the resultant change would be constant.

(v) 0 feet per min

Explanation:

Let the length of ladder is l, x be the height of the top of the ladder from the ground and y be the length of the bottom of the ladder from the wall,

By making the diagram of this situation,

Applying Pythagoras theorem,

l^2 = x^2 + y^2-----(1)

Differentiating with respect to t ( time ),

0=2x\frac{dx}{dt} + 2y\frac{dy}{dt}  ( l = 26 feet = constant )

\implies 2y\frac{dy}{dt} = -2x\frac{dx}{dt}

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y = 10, \frac{dx}{dt}= -3\text{ feet per min}

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(i) From equation (1),

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676=x^2 + 100

576 = x^2

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From equation (X),

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(ii) From equation (X),

\frac{dy}{dt}\propto x

Thus, for different value of x the value of \frac{dy}{dt} would be different.

(iii) Since, distance = Positive number,

So, the value of y will always a positive number.

Thus, from equation (X),

The rate would always be a positive.

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i.e. x = increases ⇒ y = decreases

y = decreases ⇒ y = increases

(v) if ladder hit the ground x = 0,

So, from equation (X),

\frac{dy}{dt}=0\text{ feet per min}

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