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Alexus [3.1K]
3 years ago
8

A ball with a mass of 3.1 kg is moving in a uniform circular motion upon a horizontal surface. The ball is attached at the cente

r to a nail with a 2.0-m long rope and the tension in the rope is 20.4 N. Assuming no friction is taking place, how long does it take for the mass to make one complete revolution
Physics
1 answer:
inessss [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

3.46 seconds

Explanation:

Since the ball is moving in circular motion thus centripetal force will be acting there along the rope.

The equation for the centripetal force is as follows -

F=\frac{mv^2}{r}

Where, m is the mass of the ball, v is the speed and r is the radius of the circular path which will be equal to the length of the rope.

This centripetal force will be equal to the tension in the string and thus we can write,

20.4 = \frac{3.1\times v^2}{2}

and, v^2 = 13.16

Thus, v = 3.63 m/s.

Now, the total length of circular path = circumference of the circle

Thus, total path length = 2πr = 2 × 3.14 × 2 = 12.56 m

Time taken to complete one revolution = \frac{\text {Path length} }{\text {Speed}} = \frac{12.56}{3.63} = 3.46 seconds.

Thus, the mass will complete one revolution in 3.46 seconds.

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(2) The  velocity of the wave is 23.7 m/s.

(3) The maximum speed in the y-direction of any piece of the string is 6.14 m/s.

<h3> Wavelength of the wave</h3>

A general wave equation is given as;

y(x, t) = A sin(Kx - ωt)

<h3>Velocity of the wave</h3>

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y(x, t) = 0.048 sin(5.4x - 128t)

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v = 23.7 m/s

<h3>Wavelength of the wave</h3>

λ = 2π/K

λ = (2π)/(5.4)

λ = 1.164 m

<h3>Maximum speed of the wave</h3>

v(max) = Aω

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v(max) = (0.048)(128)

v(max) = 6.14 m/s

Thus, the wavelength of the wave is 1.164 m.

The  velocity of the wave is 23.7 m/s.

The maximum speed in the y-direction of any piece of the string is 6.14 m/s.

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In fact, the magnetic force exerted by the magnetic field on the wire is

where I is the current in the wire, L the length of the wire, B the magnetic field intensity and  the angle between the direction of B and the wire. In our problem, B and the wire are parallel, so the angle is  and so , therefore the magnetic force is zero: F=0.

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