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vagabundo [1.1K]
3 years ago
6

Why do waves with frequencies higher than visible light hurt while those with lower frequencies do not affect us?

Physics
2 answers:
STALIN [3.7K]3 years ago
7 0
Lower frequency waves have less strength to penetrate. How bad a wave is all depends on how well it penetrates our bodies. Visible light doesn't penetrate ur skin, but UV rays (higher than visible) can go through our skin, making it <span>bad" for us. High frequency waves have more energy and move faster</span>
AnnZ [28]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Waves with higher frequency have high penetration power. Energy of a wave id directly proportional to the frequency of the wave so penetration power is high. Visible rays suits to the human body and do not harm. Humans can see visible light and can easily work in visible range. But in the higher frequency such as UV waves and radio waves penetrate human body and affect it in negative way.

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A dead organism is the same as a nonliving thing in science. <br> Fact: <br> Evidence:
nikitadnepr [17]

No that is false

Because its a organism. Which means at one point it was a live. It just died. You cant die if you were never alive. So that means that at one time was living.

But nonliving thing in science is like a piece of plastic cant breath eat die non living

If this was helpful pls mark be as brainliest!!!!!!!!

4 0
3 years ago
Pilots can be tested for the stresses of flying high-speed jets in a whirling "human centrifuge," which takes 1.2min to turn thr
bearhunter [10]
Sure.
Can I use your answer to part-'a' ?

If the angular acceleration is actually 32 rev/min², than
after 1.2 min, it has reached the speed of

                 (32 rev/min²) x (1.2 min)  =  38.4 rev/min .

Check:

If the initial speed is zero and the final speed is 38.4 rpm,
then the average speed during the acceleration period is

                  
(1/2) (0 + 38.4)  =  19.2 rpm  average

At an average speed of  19.2 rpm for 1.2 min,
it covers

                   (19.2 rev/min) x (1.2 min)  =  23.04 revs .

That's pretty close to the "23" in the question, so I think that
everything here is in order.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 0.311 kg tennis racket moving 30.3 m/s east makes an elastic collision with a 0.0570 kg ball moving 19.2 m/s west. Find the ve
amm1812

<u>Answer</u>:

The velocity of the tennis racket after the collision 14.966 m/s.

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

let the following:

m₁ = mass of tennis racket = 0.311 kg

m₂ = mass of the ball = 0.057 kg

u₁ = velocity of tennis racket before collision = 30.3 m/s

u₂ = velocity of the ball before collision = -19.2 m/s

v₁ = velocity of tennis racket after collision

v₂ = velocity of the ball after collision

Right (+) , Left (-)

An elastic collision is an encounter between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains the same.

So, the total kinetic energy before collision = the total kinetic energy after collision.

So, 0.5 m₁ u₁² + 0.5 m₂ u₂² = 0.5 m₁ v₁² + 0.5 m₂ v₂²  ⇒ (1)

Also, the total momentum before collision = the total momentum after collision.

So, m₁ u₁ + m₂ u₂ = m₁ v₁ + m₂ v₂  ⇒ (2)

Solving (1) and (2):

∴ v₁ = [ u₁ * (m₁ - m₂) + u₂ * 2m₂ ]/ (m₁ + m₂)

      = ( 30.3 * (0.311 - 0.057) - 19.2 * 2 * 0.057 ) / ( 0.311 + 0.057)

      = 14.966 m/s.

So, the velocity of the tennis racket after the collision 14.966 m/s.

7 0
4 years ago
I need help!!! 60 POINTS!!!!
Scrat [10]
Correct one is b
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3 0
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Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

now that's a sweet little bro

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3 years ago
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