Answer:
thats really hard how could you answerthis hhhhhhh
Answer:a
a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4
b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8
c) Vo/Vi = - 1000
Explanation:
a)
R1 = 17kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0
sin we know Va≈Vb=0
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k
Vo/Vi = -3.4
║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4 ( negative sign phase inversion)
b)
R2 = 74kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
so
(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 14.8
║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8 ( negative sign phase inversion)
c)
Also for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0 ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 1000
║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000 ( negative sign phase inversion)
Problem Solvers
Explanation:
Engineers find problems in the world, and then they find solutions for them.
Answer:
www stands for world wide web
Explanation:
It will really help you thank you.
Answer: c) 450 kPa
Explanation:
Boyle's Law: This law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of the gas at constant temperature and number of moles.
(At constant temperature and number of moles)
where,
= initial pressure of gas = 150 kPa
= final pressure of gas = ?
= initial volume of gas = v L
= final volume of gas = 
Therefore, the new pressure of the gas will be 450 kPa.
