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maksim [4K]
3 years ago
10

Which best explains parallel forces

Physics
1 answer:
earnstyle [38]3 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

-when the parallel force system is a situation in which two forces of equal magnitude act in the same direction within the same plane, -and the parallel forces lie in the same plane and have lines of action that never intersect each other.

HOPE THIS HELP YOU ! ;))))

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how do you find work when only given the angle a sled is pulled, the mass, the coefficent of kinetic friction and distance
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

W = F * s    

Work done equals applied force * distance traveled

Apparent weight = M g (1 - sin θ)     since some of applied force will lighten sled

μ = coefficient of kinetic friction

F cos θ = force applied to motion of sled

s = distance traveled

[μ M g (1 - sin θ)] cos θ * s = work done in moving sled

Note that F = μ M g    if applied force is in the horizontal direction

8 0
2 years ago
A very small sphere with positive charge 5.00uC is released from rest at a point 1.20cm from a very long line of uniform linear
JulijaS [17]
Let us situate this on the x axis, and let our uniform line of charge be positioned on the interval <span>(−L,0]</span> for some large number L. The voltage V as a function of x on the interval <span>(0,∞)</span> is given by integrating the contributions from each bit of charge. Let the charge density be λ. Thus, for an infinitesimal length element <span>d<span>x′</span></span>, we have <span>λ=<span><span>dq</span><span>d<span>x′</span></span></span></span>.<span>V(x)=<span>1/<span>4π<span>ϵ0</span></span></span><span>∫line</span><span><span>dq/</span>r</span>=<span>λ/<span>4π<span>ϵ0</span></span></span><span>∫<span>−L</span>0</span><span><span>d<span>x/</span></span><span>x−<span>x′</span></span></span>=<span>λ/<span>4π<span>ϵ0</span></span></span><span>(ln|x+L|−ln|x|)</span></span>
5 0
3 years ago
8a. What is the equivalent resistance of the following circuit?
ollegr [7]

Answer: Take your pick

Explanation:

if they are all in parallel 1 /(1/100 + 1/300 + 1/50) = 30 Ω

if 50 is in parallel with 2 in series 1 / (1/(100 + 300) + 1/50) = 44.444...Ω

if 100 is in parallel with 2 in series 1 / (1/(50 + 300) + 1/100) = 77.777...Ω

if 300 is in parallel with 2 in series 1 / (1/(100 + 50) + 1/300) = 100 Ω

If 50 is in series with 2 in parallel 50 + 1/(1/100 + 1/300) = 125 Ω

If 100 is in series with 2 in parallel 100 + 1/(1/50 + 1/300) = 142.857...Ω

If 300 is in series with 2 in parallel 300 + 1/(1/50 + 1/100) = 333.333...Ω

If they are all in series 100 + 300 + 50 = 450 Ω

4 0
2 years ago
Ray creates an energy transfer diagram for a hair dryer. However, the diagram contains an error that could be corrected in sever
Tresset [83]

If the energy transfer diagram created by Ray has error in it, it can be corrected by applying the principle of energy conservation.

<h3>What is energy diagram?</h3>

Energy diagram is sketch of the energy flow process or energy transfer or energy conversion process.

The law of energy conservation states that, energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to another.

Thus, if the energy transfer diagram created by Ray has error in it, it can be corrected by applying the principle of energy conservation.

Learn more about energy conservation here: brainly.com/question/24772394

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
When a 5.0kg cart undergoes a 2.2m/s increase in speed, what is the impulse of the cart
Karolina [17]

Answer:

11.0 kg m/s

Explanation:

The impulse exerted on the cart is equal to its change in momentum:

I=\Delta p=m\Delta v

where

m = 5.0 kg is the mass of the cart

\Delta v=2.2 m/s is its change in speed

Substituting numbers into the equation, we find

I=(5.0kg)(2.2 m/s)=11 kg m/s

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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