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Mazyrski [523]
3 years ago
14

Given a die, would it be more likely to get a single 6 in six rolls, at least two 6s in twelve rolls, or at least one-hundred 6s

in six-hundred rolls?
Physics
1 answer:
vichka [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

In first case we are interested in one time 6 in six rolls

Thus probability = number of chances required/Total chances

= 1/6

Similarly in the second case probability = 2/12 = 1/6

In the same way in last case probability = 100/600 = 1/6

The probability is the same . Thus all the cases has equal chances  

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A concrete block (B-36 x10 °C-') of volume 100 mat 40°C is cooled to
ruslelena [56]
  • T1=40°C=313K
  • T_2=-10°C=263K

Applying Charles law

\\ \sf\Rrightarrow \dfrac{V_1}{T_1}=\dfrac{V_2}{T_2}

\\ \sf\Rrightarrow \dfrac{100}{313}=\dfrac{V_2}{263}

\\ \sf\Rrightarrow V_2=\dfrac{26300}{313}

\\ \sf\Rrightarrow V_2=84.02ml

6 0
2 years ago
A traves de una manguera de 1 in de diámetro fluye gasolina con una velocidad media de 5ft/s ¿cuál es el gasto?
jonny [76]

Answer:

El gasto de gasto es de aproximadamente 0.0273 pies cúbicos por segundo.

Explanation:

El gasto es el flujo volumétrico de gasolina (Q), medido en pies cúbicos por segundo, que sale de la manguera. Asumiendo que la velocidad de salida es constante, tenemos que el gasto a través de la manguera es:

Q = \frac{\pi}{4}\cdot D^{2}\cdot v (1)

Donde:

D - Diámetro de la manguera, medido en pies.

v - Velocidad medida de salida, medida en pies por segundo.

Si sabemos que D = \frac{1}{12}\,ft y v = 5\,\frac{ft}{s }, entonces el gasto de gasolina es:

Q = \frac{\pi}{4}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{12}\,ft \right)^{2} \cdot \left(5\,\frac{ft}{s} \right)

Q \approx 0.0273\,\frac{ft^{3}}{s}

El gasto de gasto es de aproximadamente 0.0273 pies cúbicos por segundo.

6 0
3 years ago
How much work does it take to move a 50 μC charge<br> against a 12 V potential difference?
lukranit [14]
<span>work =V*Q =12*50*10^-6

The total work done will be equal to 

work = V.Q

which means 

w= 12 . 50.10^-6
Hence,
w= 0.0006 J</span>
8 0
3 years ago
two billiard balls moving along the same line hit each other head-on. each has a mass of 0.220 kg; one has an initial velocity o
Tems11 [23]

Hi there!

Since the collision is elastic, we must also satisfy the following condition:

Ei = Ef, or:

KEi = KEf

Begin by writing an expression for momentum. (p = mv) Remember that one ball's direction is negative; in this instance, we can let the second ball be moving LEFT.

mv1 + mv2 = mvf1 + mvf2

0.220(1.84) + 0.220(-.530) = 0.220(vf1 + vf2)

0.2882/0.220 = vf1 + vf2

1.31 = vf1 + vf2

Now, we can express this as a conservation of energy:

1/2mv1² + 1/2mv2² = 1/2mvf1² + 1/2mvf2²

Plug in values and simplify:

0.403315 = 1/2m(vf1² + vf2²)

Simplify further:

3.6665 = vf1² + vf2²

Use the equation derived from momentum above and solve for one variable:

vf2 = 1.31 - vf1

Plug in this expression for vf2:

3.6665 = vf1² + (1.31 - vf1)²

Expand:

3.6665 = vf1² + 1.7161 - 2.62vf1 + vf1²

Simplify:

1.9504 = -2.62vf1 + 2vf1²

Solve for vf1 using a graphing calculator:

vf1 = -0.53 m/s or 1.84 m/s; we must figure out which one is correct.

Since v1 is heading to the right initially with a velocity of 1.84 m/s, we know that the ball's velocity could not have stayed the same in both magnitude and direction, so the final velocity must be -0.53 m/s.

Now, we can solve for the velocity of the other ball (initial of 0.53 m/s):

vf2 = 1.31 - (-0.53) = 1.84 m/s.

Now, you could have also made the connection that when two balls of the SAME MASS experience an ELASTIC collision, the velocities are simply "exchanged" from one to another. I just used this more "extensive" method to prove this.

7 0
3 years ago
This picture shows an example of what?
Wewaii [24]
The picture shows an example of velocity
5 0
3 years ago
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