Answer:
The correct answer to the question is (A)
When it hits the heavy rope, compared to the wave on the string, the wave that propagates along the rope has the same (A) frequency
Explanation:
The speed of a wave in a string is dependent on the square root of the tension ad inversely proportional to the square root of the linear density of the string. Generally, the speed of a wave through a spring is dependent on the elastic and inertia properties of the string

Therefore if the linear density of the heavy rope is four times that of light rope the velocity is halved and since
v = f×λ therefore v/2 = f×λ/2
Therefore the wavelength is halved, however the frequency remains the same as continuity requires the frequency of the incident pulse vibration to be transmitted to the denser medium for the wave to continue as the wave is due to vibrating particles from a source for example
Answer:
Block A will have a final charge of 3.5nC.
Explanation:
This is because at the point of contact with Block B, which is electrically positive, the electrons in Block A will be attracted to the excess 'unpaired' protons in block B. Hence, the electrons will flow into Block B causing unpaired protons to remain in Block A.
This process is called Charging by Conduction.
This charging process will continue until the charges are evenly distributed between both objects.
In case you're wondering, "<em>how's all this possible within a few seconds</em>?", remember that electrons travel very fast and so, this process is a rather rapid one.
Answer:
What Electricity questions?
Explanation:
Answer:
Recall that the electric field outside a uniformly charged solid sphere is exactly the same as if the charge were all at a point in the centre of the sphere:

lnside the sphere, the electric field also acts like a point charge, but only for the proportion of the charge further inside than the point r:

To find the potential, we integrate the electric field on a path from infinity (where of course, we take the direct path so that we can write the it as a 1 D integral):

=![\frac{q}{4\pi e_{0} } [\frac{1}{R} -\frac{r^{2}-R^{2} }{2R^{3} } ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bq%7D%7B4%5Cpi%20e_%7B0%7D%20%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7BR%7D%20-%5Cfrac%7Br%5E%7B2%7D-R%5E%7B2%7D%20%20%7D%7B2R%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%20%5D)
∴NOTE: Graph is attached
Answer:
second one is correct that is right