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mihalych1998 [28]
3 years ago
12

Guys answer this pop quiz question it’s a joke btw it not real:) anyways here the pop quiz ok (Am walking my dog and the leashe

breaks how did break) answer u can chose or make up your own
-The dog bited the leash of

-the dog pulled to hard the leash

-the girl leted go the leash
Engineering
1 answer:
mash [69]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I think its b if you get it right tell me or no

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Elodia [21]

Answer:

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3 years ago
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a. Draw the logic gate implementation for the Boolean function F = W X(Y + Z).b. Write the DeMorgan equivalent Boolean statement
Llana [10]

Answer:

DeMorgan equivalent :

F = B + C

F' = ⁻B⁻+⁻C⁻ = ⁻BC⁻

Explanation:

Attached below is the logic gate implementation diagram and the DeMorgan equivalent Boolean statement as requested in part A and B

3 0
3 years ago
When subject to an unknown torque, the shear stress in a 2 mm thick rectangular tube of dimension 100 mm x 200 mm was found to b
laila [671]

Answer:

The shear stress will be 80 MPa

Explanation:

Here we have;

τ = (T·r)/J

For rectangular tube, we have;

Average shear stress given as follows;

Where;

\tau_{ave} = \frac{T}{2tA_{m}}

A_m = 100 mm × 200 mm = 20000 mm² = 0.02 m²

t = Thickness of the shaft in question = 2 mm = 0.002 m

T = Applied torque

Therefore, 50 MPa = T/(2×0.002×0.02)

T = 50 MPa × 0.00008 m³ = 4000 N·m

Where the dimension is 50 mm × 250 mm, which is 0.05 m × 0.25 m

Therefore, A_m = 0.05 m × 0.25 m = 0.0125 m².

Therefore, from the following average shear stress formula, we have;

\tau_{ave} = \frac{T}{2tA_{m}}

Plugging in then values, gives;

\tau_{ave} = \frac{4000}{2\times 0.002 \times 0.0125} = 80,000,000 Pa

The shear stress will be 80,000,000 Pa or 80 MPa.

7 0
3 years ago
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8 0
3 years ago
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Considering only (110), (1 1 0), (101), and (10 1 ) as the possible slip planes, calculate the stress at which a BCC single crys
vredina [299]

Solution :

i. Slip plane (1 1 0)

Slip direction -- [1 1 1]

Applied stress direction = ( 1 0 0 ]

τ = 50 MPa    ( Here slip direction must be perpendicular to slip plane)

τ = σ cos Φ cos λ

$\cos \phi = \frac{(1,0,0) \cdot (1,1,0)}{1 \times \sqrt2}$

       $=\frac{1}{\sqrt2 }$

$\cos \lambda = \frac{(1,0,0) \cdot (1,-1,1)}{1 \times \sqrt3}$

       $=\frac{1}{\sqrt3 }$

  τ = σ cos Φ cos λ

∴ $50= \sigma \times \frac{1}{\sqrt2} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt3} $

  σ = 122.47 MPa

ii. Slip plane  --- (1 1 0)

   Slip direction -- [1 1 1]

  $\cos \phi = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, -1, 0)}{1 \times \sqrt2} =\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$

   $\cos \lambda = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, 1, -1)}{1 \times \sqrt3} =\frac{1}{\sqrt3}$

 τ = σ cos Φ cos λ

∴ $50= \sigma \times \frac{1}{\sqrt2} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt3} $

  σ = 122.47 MPa

iii. Slip plane  --- (1 0 1)

    Slip direction --- [1 1 1]

$\cos \phi = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, 0, 1)}{1 \times \sqrt2} =\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$

   $\cos \lambda = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, 1, -1)}{1 \times \sqrt3} =\frac{1}{\sqrt3}$

τ = σ cos Φ cos λ

∴ $50= \sigma \times \frac{1}{\sqrt2} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt3} $

  σ = 122.47 MPa

iv. Slip plane -- (1 0 1)

    Slip direction  ---- [1 1 1]

$\cos \phi = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, 0, -1)}{1 \times \sqrt2}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$

$\cos \lambda = \frac{(1, 0, 0) \cdot (1, -1, 1)}{1 \times \sqrt3} =\frac{1}{\sqrt3}$

τ = σ cos Φ cos λ

∴ $50= \sigma \times \frac{1}{\sqrt2} \times \frac{1}{\sqrt3} $

  σ = 122.47 MPa

∴ (1, 0, -1). (1, -1, 1) = 1 + 0 - 1 = 0

3 0
3 years ago
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