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Aleksandr-060686 [28]

3 years ago

11

Why are paperclips attracted to magnets? Group of answer choices They contain silver They contain aluminum They contain tin They

contain iron

1 answer:

riadik2000 [5.3K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

They contain iron.

Explanation:

Iron is made of metal and magnets attract to metal Iron.

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. A PNP transistor is connected in a circuit so that the collector-base junction remains reverse biased and the emitter-base jun

Elodia [21]

Explanation :

A power amplifier is used to amplify electric signals i.e. to increase the low power signal to higher powers.

A PNP transistor is connected in a circuit so that the collector-base junction remains reverse biased and the emitter-base junction is forward biased.

This transistor can be used as a power amplifier because it gives a much larger output current. The gain of an amplifier shows the amount of amplification. It is the difference between the input and the output signals.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The flywheel is rotating with an angular velocity ω0 = 2.37 rad/s at time t = 0 when a torque is applied to increase its angular

nika2105 [10]

Answer:

ω = 12.023 rad/s

α = 222.61 rad/s²

Explanation:

We are given;

ω0 = 2.37 rad/s, t = 0 sec

ω =?, t = 0.22 sec

α =?

θ = 57°

From formulas,

Tangential acceleration; a_t = rα

Normal acceleration; a_n = rω²

tan θ = a_t/a_n

Thus; tan θ = rα/rω² = α/ω²

tan θ = α/ω²

α = ω²tan θ

Now, α = dω/dt

So; dω/dt = ω²tan θ

Rearranging, we have;

dω/ω² = dt × tan θ

Integrating both sides, we have;

(ω, ω0)∫dω/ω² = (t, 0)∫dt × tan θ

This gives;

-1[(1/ω_o) - (1/ω)] = t(tan θ)

Thus;

ω = ω_o/(1 - (ω_o × t × tan θ))

While;

α = dω/dt = ((ω_o)²×tan θ)/(1 - (ω_o × t × tan θ))²

Thus, plugging in the relevant values;

ω = 2.37/(1 - (2.37 × 0.22 × tan 57))

ω = 12.023 rad/s

Also;

α = (2.37² × tan 57)/(1 - (2.37 × 0.22 × tan 57))²

α = 8.64926751525/0.03885408979 = 222.61 rad/s²

6 0

3 years ago

Plsss hlppppppp!!!!!!!!!!!!!

masya89 [10]

Explanation:

The angular momentum is doubled because it is proportional to the angular velocity.

6 0

2 years ago

Review. As an astronaut, you observe a small planet to be spherical. After landing on the planet, you set off, walking always st

anyanavicka [17]

To find the mass of the planet we will apply the relationship of the given circumference of the planet with the given data and thus find the radius of the planet. From the kinematic equations of motion we will find the gravitational acceleration of the planet, and under the description of this value by Newton's laws the mass of the planet, that is,

The circumference of the planet is,

$\phi = 25.1m$

Under the mathematical value the radius would be

$\phi = 2\pi r$

$r = \frac{25}{2\pi}$

$r = 3.9788km$

Using second equation of motion

$x = \frac{1}{2} at^2$

Replacing the values given,

$1.4 = \frac{1}{2} a (29.2)^2$

Rearranging and solving for 'a' we have,

$a = 0.003283m/s^2$

Using the value of acceleration due to gravity from Newton's law we have that

$a = \frac{GM}{r^2}$

Here,

r = Radius of the planet

G = Gravitational Universal constant

M = Mass of the Planet

$\frac{(6.67*10^{-11})*M}{(3.9788*10^3)^2} = 0.003283$

$M = 7.79201*10^{14}kg$

Therefore the mass of this planet is $7.79201*10^{14}kg$

5 0

3 years ago

The average depth of Indian Ocean is about 3000m.Calculate the fractional compression. ▲v/v, of water at the bottom of the ocean

Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

∴ fractional compression = 1.34 × 10⁻²

Explanation:

given,

depth of Indian ocean = 3000 m

Bulk modulus of the water = 2.2 x 10⁹ N/m²

We know,

P = P₀ + ρgh

P₀ is the atmospheric pressure

P₀ = 10⁵ N/m²

ρ is the density of the water, 1000 Kg/m³

P = 10⁵ + 1000 × 9.8 × 3000 = 2.94 × 10⁷ N/m²

using formula,

B = P/{-∆V/V}

B is bulk modulus and { -∆V/V} is the fractional compression

$\dfrac{-\Delta V}{V} = \dfrac{2.94 \times 10^7}{2.2 \times 10^9}$

$\dfrac{-\Delta V}{V} =1.34 \times 10^{-2}$

∴ fractional compression = 1.34 × 10⁻²

7 0

3 years ago