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Korvikt [17]
3 years ago
14

Https://brainly.com/question/22600061 Don’t ask too much science

Physics
1 answer:
N76 [4]3 years ago
8 0
Step by step explanation
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After watching the video below and based on your personal experiences, is there a difference
jek_recluse [69]

Based on my personal experiences, I believe that there is a difference between areas in precision of control because there are different part of the brain that controls the functions of the body.

<h3>What is the difference between left-handed and right-handed people?</h3>

From the standpoint of  brain lateralization, differences do exist such as based on experience such as handedness or specific skills such as playing a guitar.

Note that Left-handers are said to have reduced or little lateralized brains, which tells us that the two halves of the brain are little different than as seen in the right-handers.

Therefore, I can say that based on my personal experiences, I believe that there is a difference between areas in precision of control because there are different part of the brain that controls the functions of the body.

Learn more about brain from

brainly.com/question/1247675

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
A student pulls horizontally on a block with a spring scale. The block reads 24.5 Newtons before the block starts to move. It re
Ahat [919]

Answer:

The coefficient of friction causes the force on the object to be less than its initial reading on the spring scale.

Explanation:

Since the block reads 24.5 N before the block starts to move, this is its weight. Now, when the block starts to move at a constant velocity, it experiences a frictional force which is equal to the force with which the student pulls.

Now, since the velocity is constant so, there is no acceleration and thus, the net force is zero.

Let F = force applied and f = frictional force = μN = μW where μ = coefficient of friction and N = normal force. The normal force also equals the weight of the object W.

Now, since F - f = ma and a = 0 where a = acceleration and m = mass of block,

F - f = m(0) = 0

F - f = 0

F = f

Since the force applied equals the frictional force, we have that

F =  μW and F = 23.7 N and W = 24.5 N

So, 23.7 N = μ(24.5 N)

μ = 23.7 N/24.5 N

μ = 0.97

Since μ = 0.97 < 1, the coefficient of friction causes the force on the object to be less than its initial reading on the spring scale.

7 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is not a valid conversion factor?
kykrilka [37]
The third option is wrong
8 0
2 years ago
How are the forces observed related to the motion of the earth around the sun
Inga [223]

This question sounds like it came after some activity where
some forces were observed.  Since we were not there, and
we don't know what the activity was, we don't know what forces
were observed, and we have no clue to how they might be related
to the motion of the Earth around the sun.

7 0
3 years ago
An object covers a distance of 8 meters in the first second of travel, another 8 meters
andre [41]

Answer:

I guess the acceleration would be 8 meters a second

Explanation:

I can't think of any other fitting way to put the answer sorry if it's not right

4 0
2 years ago
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